Midwifery Exam Questions

Midwifery Exam Questions Related

Review Midwifery Exam Questions related questions and content

Teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities include

  • A. Medical conditions and pesticides
  • B. Prescription drugs and chromosomes
  • C. Radiation and substances of abuse
  • D. Disordered genes and medical conditions
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because radiation and substances of abuse are known teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities. Radiation exposure can lead to genetic mutations and developmental issues in the fetus. Substances of abuse like alcohol, tobacco, and illicit drugs can also negatively impact fetal development.

A: Medical conditions and pesticides may have negative effects on pregnancy outcomes, but they are not typically classified as teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities.

B: Prescription drugs can be teratogenic in some cases, but not all prescription drugs have harmful effects on fetal development. Chromosomes are not typically considered teratogenic causes.

D: Disordered genes can lead to congenital abnormalities, but they are not classified as teratogenic causes. Medical conditions are not universally teratogenic.

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Vaginal birth after caesarean section is known as

  • A. Spontaneous vaginal delivery
  • B. Trial of scar
  • C. Spontaneous vertex delivery
  • D. Trial of birth
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trial of scar. This term specifically refers to the process of attempting a vaginal birth after a previous caesarean section. It involves monitoring the previous cesarean scar for any signs of complications during labor.

A: Spontaneous vaginal delivery refers to giving birth vaginally without any previous cesarean section.
C: Spontaneous vertex delivery simply describes the position of the baby's head during birth.
D: Trial of birth is not a commonly used term in obstetrics and does not specifically relate to VBAC.

Postdatism is pregnancy equal to or more than

  • A. 280 days
  • B. 294 days
  • C. 290 days
  • D. 287 days
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Postdatism refers to a pregnancy that extends beyond the normal gestation period of 280 days. The correct answer is B (294 days) as it is more than the standard 280-day term. Choice A (280 days) is the normal term, not postdatism. Choices C (290 days) and D (287 days) are also below the 294-day mark, making them incorrect for defining postdatism.

Placenta praevia is also referred to as unavoidable haemorrhage because

  • A. Bleeding results as the segment prepares for true labour
  • B. Bleeding results from pathological processes of the placenta
  • C. Bleeding always occurs after a gestation of 37 complete weeks
  • D. Of the high morbidity and mortality rate to the mother and neonate
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because placenta praevia can lead to severe bleeding during childbirth, posing high risks to both the mother and the baby. This condition occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix dilates during labor. Choice A is incorrect because bleeding in placenta praevia is not related to the segment preparing for labor. Choice B is incorrect as bleeding is primarily due to the abnormal placement of the placenta, not from pathological processes. Choice C is incorrect as bleeding can occur before 37 weeks in cases of placenta praevia.

What are common complications of multiple gestations?

  • A. Premature labor
  • B. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome
  • C. Preeclampsia
  • D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Multiple gestations are at higher risk for complications such as premature labor, where contractions start before 37 weeks, leading to preterm birth. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome can occur in identical twins sharing a placenta, causing unequal blood flow. Preeclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, is more common in multiple pregnancies. Therefore, all choices A, B, and C are correct as they are common complications associated with multiple gestations.

Which of the following is an indication for forceps delivery?

  • A. Cephalopelvic disproportion
  • B. Occipito posterior position
  • C. Breech presentation
  • D. Placenta abruption
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Occipito posterior position. Forceps delivery may be indicated in this situation to help rotate the baby's head and facilitate delivery. Occipito posterior position can lead to prolonged labor and fetal distress, making forceps delivery necessary for a safe delivery.

Incorrect choices:
A: Cephalopelvic disproportion is not an indication for forceps delivery as it refers to mismatch between the size of the baby's head and the mother's pelvis.
C: Breech presentation typically requires a different approach such as cesarean section rather than forceps delivery.
D: Placenta abruption, a medical emergency, would not be managed with forceps delivery but rather require immediate intervention to prevent harm to both the mother and baby.

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