Nokea
The 29-weeks-pregnant client presents to triage with decreased fetal movement. Her initial BP is 140/90 mm Hg. She states she “doesn’t feel well” and her vision is “blurry.” Additional assessment findings include: normal reflexes, +2 proteinuria, trace pedal edema, and puffy face and hands. What is the most important information that the nurse should obtain from the client’s prenatal record?
- A. Depressed liver enzymes
- B. BP at her first prenatal visit
- C. Urine dipstick from last visit
- D. The pattern of weight gain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The pregnant client with a BP that is greater than 140/90 mm Hg with the presence of proteinuria may have preeclampsia. New-onset hypertension is associated with preeclampsia. Generalized vasospasm in preeclampsia would result in reduced blood flow to the liver and elevated, not depressed, liver enzymes. The urine dip from the last visit should be reviewed but is not the most important to review because the significant information is the client’s elevated BP. The weight gain pattern should be reviewed but is not the most important to review because the significant information is the client’s elevated BP.
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According to the TPAL method, which of the following reflects the client's obstetric history?
- A. T-III, P-0, A-0, L-III
- B. T-III, P-II, A-0, L-0
- C. T-III, P-II, A-0, L-II
- D. T-III, P-0, A-0, L-III
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TPAL: Term (3, one son and twin daughters), Preterm (0), Abortions (0), Living (3). The client has three term deliveries and three living children.
The nurse prepares the client for which pain management option during labor?
- A. Epidural anesthesia
- B. Hot baths during active labor
- C. Over-the-counter pain relievers
- D. No pain relief options
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epidural anesthesia is a common and effective pain management option during labor, tailored to the client's needs.
The client delivered a healthy newborn 4 hours ago after being induced with oxytocin. While being assisted to the bathroom to void for the first time after delivery, the client tells the nurse that she doesn’t feel a need to urinate. Which explanation should the nurse provide when the client expresses surprise after voiding 900 mL of urine?
- A. “A decreased sensation of bladder filling is normal after childbirth.”
- B. “The oxytocin you received in labor makes it difficult to feel voiding.”
- C. “You probably didn’t empty completely. I will need to scan your bladder.”
- D. “Your bladder capacity is large; you likely won’t void again for 6—8 hours.”
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should explain about the decreased sensation of bladder filling after childbirth. It is not uncommon for the postpartum client to have increased bladder capacity, decreased sensitivity to fluid pressure, and a decreased sensation of bladder filling. Oxytocin (Pitocin) is not expected to cause a change in bladder sensation, but it does have an antidiuretic effect. There is no indication that the client didn’t completely empty; a volume of 900 mL is a large amount. The postpartum client is at risk for bladder overdistention and should be encouraged to void every 2 to 4 hours.
The nurse is educating the postpartum client. Which prevention strategies for postpartum depression should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
- A. Attend a support group that has other postpartum women.
- B. Use the baby’s nap time to complete household chores.
- C. Keep a journal of feelings during the postpartum period.
- D. Call the HCP if feelings of sadness do not subside quickly.
- E. Develop a daily schedule of activities, and follow the plan.
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: A postpartum support group can be a place where realistic information about postpartum depression can be discussed and symptoms recognized. Fatigue is a major concern for all postpartum women. Clients should be encouraged to nap when their infant is napping rather than using that time for other activities. Keeping a journal can be emotionally cathartic and can help prevent postpartum depression. Postpartum mothers should be encouraged to call their HCPs if symptoms of postpartum depression, such as feelings of sadness, do not subside quickly or if the symptoms become severe. Structuring activity with a schedule helps counteract inertia that comes with feeling sad or unsettled.
The 39-year-old client with type 1 DM presents at 36 weeks’ gestation with Drag and Drop contractions. An HCP decides to do an amniocentesis. Which statement best supports why the nurse and NA should prepare the client for an amniocentesis now?
- A. Diabetic women have a higher incidence of birth defects, and the HCP wants to determine if a birth defect is present.
- B. The client is over 35, at 36 weeks’ gestation with Drag and Drop contractions, and is at risk for chromosomal disorders.
- C. An amniocentesis performed at 36 weeks’ gestation is being completed to determine if the fetal lungs have matured.
- D. The amniocentesis is more accurate than the fetal fibronectin test in determining if delivery is imminent.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Infants of diabetic mothers are less likely to have mature lung capacity at 36 weeks; knowing lung maturity can influence whether delivery should proceed. In mid pregnancy, the cells in amniotic fluid can be studied for genetic abnormalities such as Down’s syndrome and birth defects, but amniocentesis would not be performed for this purpose when the client is in preterm labor. Many women over the age of 35 have amniocentesis completed to test for chromosomal disorders, but not this late in the pregnancy. Fetal fibronectin testing is used to determine if a preterm birth is likely, but it cannot be used to determine lung maturity.