Nokea
The 42-year-old client who had a partial hydatidiform molar pregnancy 3 months ago asks the nurse whether she and her husband can try conceiving again. Which response by the nurse is incorrect and warrants follow-up action by the observing nurse manager?
- A. “You will need serial levels of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (BHCG) drawn.”
- B. “You cannot conceive ever again because of your risk of choriocarcinoma.”
- C. “You should not become pregnant yet for 6 to 12 months.”
- D. “Your risk of another hydatidiform molar pregnancy is low.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Women who have had a molar pregnancy can conceive again once their BHCG levels are normal and remain normal for a certain time period, usually 6 to 12 months. This response by the nurse is incorrect and should be followed up by the observing nurse manager. Because of the risk of choriocarcinoma, serial serum BHCG testing is completed after a hydatidiform molar pregnancy. Because the client will undergo serial serum BHCG testing after a hydatidiform molar pregnancy, she should not get pregnant for 6 to 12 months until testing is completed and it is confirmed that she does not have a malignancy. Couples with a past history of molar pregnancy have the same statistical chance of conceiving again and having a normal pregnancy as those without.
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The nurse reviews information and assesses the laboring client at 42 weeks’ gestation before an HCP induces labor. Which findings should be reported to the HCP because they are contraindications to labor induction? Select all that apply.
- A. Umbilical cord prolapse
- B. Transverse fetal lie
- C. Cervical dilation not progressing
- D. Premature rupture of membranes
- E. Previous cesarean incision
Correct Answer: A,B,E
Rationale: Inducing labor with an umbilical cord prolapsed can cause fetal trauma and is contraindicated. This should be reported to the HCP. Inducing labor with a transverse fetal lie can produce trauma to the fetus and mother and is contraindicated. This should be reported to the HCP. Women with a previous cesarean incision should not be stimulated because it is a contraindication for a vaginal birth and warrants an immediate repeat cesarean birth. This should be reported to the HCP. Lack of progressive cervical dilation is an indication for labor induction, not a contraindication. Premature rupture of the membranes is an indication for labor induction, not a contraindication.
The nurse’s laboring client is being electronically monitored during her labor. The baseline FHR throughout the labor has been in the 130s. In the last 2 hours, the baseline has decreased to the 100s. How should the nurse document this FHR?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Late deceleration
- D. Within normal limits
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An FHR baseline less than 110 is classified as bradycardia. Tachycardia occurs when the baseline is greater than 160 bpm. A prolonged deceleration is defined as a change from the baseline FHR that occurs for 2 to 10 minutes before returning to baseline. A late deceleration is a gradual decrease and return of the FHR to baseline, associated with a uterine contraction. A decrease to the 100s is not within the normal range. The normal FHR is 120 to 160 bpm.
The nurse instructs the client to report which newborn symptom immediately?
- A. Mild jaundice on day 3
- B. Inability to suck or feed
- C. Occasional sneezing
- D. Soft spot on head
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inability to suck or feed is a serious symptom that may indicate neurological or health issues, requiring immediate reporting.
Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. A weight gain of about 10 pounds is recommended during pregnancy.
- B. Your weight gain depends on the amount of food that you eat.
- C. It's normal for adolescent girls to be worried about weight gain.
- D. You're average weight gain during pregnancy is between 25 and 35 pounds.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The average weight gain of 25-35 pounds is appropriate for a teenager with normal prepregnancy weight, addressing her concerns.
The client in active labor has moderate to strong contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 60 to 70 seconds. The client states extreme pain in the small of her back. Her abdomen reveals a small depression under the umbilicus. Which fetal position should the nurse document?
- A. Occiput anterior
- B. Occiput posterior
- C. Left occiput anterior
- D. Right occiput anterior
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An occiput posterior position is characterized by intense back pain (back labor). A depression under the umbilicus occurs as a result of the posterior shoulder. When a fetus presents anterior, it is uncommon for the mother’s chief symptom to be back pain, and the uterus should appear smooth.