The addition of benzoyl peroxide to erythromycin for the topical treatment of acne:
- A. Improve the efficacy of erythromycin
- B. Decrease the risk of desquamation
- C. Decreases the risk of resistance to erythromycin
- D. Increases the time the patient can be exposed to sunlight
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. Benzoyl peroxide has antibacterial properties.
2. Combining benzoyl peroxide with erythromycin reduces bacterial resistance.
3. This combination therapy prevents the development of resistance to erythromycin.
4. Therefore, the risk of resistance to erythromycin is decreased.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as benzoyl peroxide does not directly improve the efficacy of erythromycin.
- Choice B is incorrect as desquamation is not directly affected by the addition of benzoyl peroxide.
- Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence to suggest that benzoyl peroxide increases the time a patient can be exposed to sunlight.
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An 84-year-old male with prostatic hypertrophy is at increased risk of:
- A. Constipation
- B. Fecal incontinence
- C. Urinary tract infections
- D. Prostate cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urinary tract infections. Prostatic hypertrophy can cause obstruction of the urinary tract, leading to urinary retention and stasis, which increases the risk of urinary tract infections. Constipation (choice A) and fecal incontinence (choice B) are more related to issues with the gastrointestinal system rather than prostatic hypertrophy. Prostate cancer (choice D) is a separate condition that is not directly linked to prostatic hypertrophy. Therefore, the increased risk for an 84-year-old male with prostatic hypertrophy is urinary tract infections due to urinary obstruction.
Which of the following anatomic landmark associations is correct?
- A. 2nd intercostal space for needle insertion in tension pneumothorax
- B. T6 for lower margin of endotracheal tube
- C. Sternal angle marks the 4th rib
- D. 5th intercostal space for chest tube insertion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 5th intercostal space is the recommended location for chest tube insertion to drain the pleural space effectively. This space is ideal as it allows for adequate drainage without causing injury to vital structures.
A: The 2nd intercostal space is actually used for needle decompression in tension pneumothorax.
B: T6 is the level at which the tip of the endotracheal tube should ideally lie to ensure proper placement and ventilation.
C: The sternal angle corresponds to the 2nd rib, not the 4th rib, making this association incorrect.
In summary, choice D is correct as it aligns with the standard practice for chest tube insertion, while choices A, B, and C are incorrect due to their association with different anatomic landmarks and procedures.
Unilateral rhinitis could be caused by all of the following except:
- A. A foreign body in the nasal canal
- B. A nasal polyp
- C. Drug-induced rhinitis
- D. A deviated septum
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A deviated septum. Unilateral rhinitis typically refers to inflammation in one nostril. A deviated septum is a physical obstruction in the nasal passage that affects both nostrils, not just one. Choices A, B, and C can all cause unilateral rhinitis as they specifically affect one side of the nasal passage. A foreign body in the nasal canal, a nasal polyp, and drug-induced rhinitis can all lead to inflammation and symptoms in one nostril.
Which of the following drugs is not contraindicated for concurrent use with warfarin (Coumadin)?
- A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
- B. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
- C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
- D. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): Amoxicillin does not significantly interact with warfarin. It is an antibiotic that works through a different mechanism than warfarin and is not known to affect its anticoagulant activity.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B (Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole): This drug combination can enhance the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding.
C (Ciprofloxacin): Ciprofloxacin can increase warfarin's effects, leading to a higher risk of bleeding.
D (Clarithromycin): Clarithromycin can interact with warfarin, potentially increasing the risk of bleeding.
The following information is recorded in the health history: "Patient denies chest pain, palpitations, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea." Which category does it belong to?
- A. Chief complaint
- B. Present illness
- C. Personal and social history
- D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Review of systems. In this case, the information provided pertains to specific symptoms related to the cardiovascular system. The review of systems involves asking about symptoms in various body systems to identify any potential issues. This information helps in identifying any underlying health concerns that the patient may not have mentioned as their main complaint.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Chief complaint - This is the main reason for the patient's visit or primary concern, not a list of symptoms.
B: Present illness - Focuses on the details of the current medical issue, not a general review of symptoms.
C: Personal and social history - Pertains to the patient's lifestyle, habits, and social support, not specific symptoms related to body systems.