The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
- B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.
You may also like to solve these questions
A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:
- A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
- D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.
A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed a low-protein diet. The nurse should explain to the client that the purpose of this diet is to:
- A. Prevent fluid overload.
- B. Reduce the workload on the kidneys.
- C. Prevent dehydration.
- D. Maintain electrolyte balance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Reduce the workload on the kidneys.' A low-protein diet is prescribed for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea and other nitrogenous wastes, which can accumulate in the body when the kidneys are not functioning properly. This reduction in protein intake helps to lessen the burden on the kidneys, as they may have difficulty in filtering and excreting waste products. Choice A is incorrect because fluid overload is more related to restrictions in fluid intake rather than protein intake. Choice C is incorrect as a low-protein diet does not directly prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because while electrolyte balance is essential in renal failure, the primary purpose of a low-protein diet is to reduce the workload on the kidneys by limiting the production of waste products.
A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?
- A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
- B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
- C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
- D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has influenza. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring (blood glucose testing).
- B. Reduce food intake to alleviate nausea.
- C. Discontinue the insulin dose if unable to eat.
- D. Take the normal dose of insulin.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During illness, individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus may experience increased insulin requirements due to factors such as stress and the release of counterregulatory hormones. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring, as stated in choice A, is crucial to closely monitor and adjust insulin doses as needed. Choice B, reducing food intake to alleviate nausea, is incorrect as it may lead to hypoglycemia and does not address the increased insulin needs during illness. Choice C, discontinuing the insulin dose if unable to eat, is dangerous as it can result in uncontrolled hyperglycemia. Choice D, taking the normal dose of insulin, may not be sufficient during illness when insulin requirements are likely elevated.
The client is preparing a morning dose of insulin, which includes 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse is verifying the client's preparation accuracy. What should the syringe read for the correct dose?
- A. 22 units.
- B. 10 units.
- C. 32 units.
- D. 42 units.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 32 units. To determine the correct dose, the nurse needs to add the 10 units of regular insulin to the 22 units of NPH, resulting in a total of 32 units. Therefore, the syringe should read 32 units. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate total dose required for the morning insulin administration.