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The AGACNP is rounding on a patient following splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura. On postoperative day 2, a review of the laboratory studies is expected to reveal
- A. Increased MCV
- B. Increased Hgb
- C. Increased platelets
- D. Increased albumin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased MCV. Following splenectomy, there is a compensatory increase in red blood cell production, leading to an increase in Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) due to the release of larger, younger red blood cells into circulation. This is known as stress erythropoiesis.
Summary:
B: Increased Hgb - Hgb levels may not necessarily increase post-splenectomy as it depends on factors such as bleeding or hydration status.
C: Increased platelets - Platelet count is not expected to increase immediately post-splenectomy.
D: Increased albumin - Albumin levels are not directly influenced by splenectomy for idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
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Signs of obstructed labor per vaginally include
- A. Dry vagina, Oedema of the cervix, Caput succedaneum
- B. Plenty amniotic fluid, Hot/dry vagina, meconium stained liquor
- C. Meconium stained liquor, Hot/dry vagina, Diluted urine
- D. Caput succedaneum, Oedema of the cervix, plenty amniotic fluid
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs of obstructed labor include a dry vagina due to prolonged pressure, oedema of the cervix due to prolonged contractions, and caput succedaneum which is swelling of the baby's scalp from prolonged pressure.
Choice B is incorrect because plenty of amniotic fluid is not a sign of obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Meconium-stained liquor can be a sign of fetal distress, but not specifically obstructed labor.
Choice C is incorrect because meconium-stained liquor is a sign of fetal distress, not necessarily obstructed labor. A hot/dry vagina is not a typical sign of obstructed labor. Diluted urine is not a typical sign of obstructed labor.
Choice D is incorrect because while caput succedaneum is a sign of obstructed labor, oedema of the cervix is more indicative of obstructed labor than plenty of amni
A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
- A. Lactulose taken 20 g PO daily
- B. Spironolactone taken 100 mg PO daily
- C. Protein intake of 50 g daily
- D. Zolpidem taken 10 mg PO qhs.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake is crucial to prevent ammonia accumulation. Protein breakdown in the body leads to ammonia production, which worsens encephalopathy symptoms. Limiting protein intake to 50g daily helps decrease ammonia formation. Lactulose (choice A) is used to reduce ammonia absorption in the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention in liver disease. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sedative and not related to managing ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for long-term management of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy.
What are the recommended strategies for managing a breech presentation?
- A. External cephalic version
- B. Immediate cesarean
- C. Pelvic X-ray
- D. Induction of labor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: External cephalic version. This procedure involves manually manipulating the baby from a breech position to a head-down position. It is recommended as a safe and effective way to manage breech presentations, reducing the need for a cesarean section. Immediate cesarean (B) is not always necessary and should be reserved for specific medical reasons. Pelvic X-ray (C) is not routinely recommended for managing breech presentations. Induction of labor (D) is not the primary strategy for managing breech presentations, as it does not address the positioning of the baby.
The term used to describe pure fetal blood loss that occurs following a ruptured vasa praevia is
- A. Fetal extra-versation
- B. Fetal exsanguination
- C. Velamentous bleeding
- D. Fetal hemorrhage
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal exsanguination. This term accurately describes the process of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia. Exsanguination refers to severe blood loss leading to death. In this context, it specifically denotes the loss of fetal blood due to the rupture of vasa praevia, which can be fatal for the fetus.
A: Fetal extra-versation is not a recognized medical term and does not accurately describe the scenario presented in the question.
C: Velamentous bleeding refers to a condition where fetal blood vessels are unprotected by the umbilical cord and run through the amniotic membranes, not specifically related to ruptured vasa praevia.
D: Fetal hemorrhage is a general term for fetal blood loss and does not specifically address the situation of pure fetal blood loss following a ruptured vasa praevia.
Perception and reaction to labor pain is highly influenced by
- A. Labor preparedness and fatigue
- B. Culture and level of education
- C. Culture and age of the woman
- D. Number of deliveries and anxiety
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B - Culture and level of education. Culture influences beliefs about pain and coping mechanisms. Education can affect understanding of pain and pain management techniques. Labor preparedness and fatigue (A) may impact pain perception but are not as influential. Age (C) alone does not determine pain perception. Number of deliveries and anxiety (D) can play a role but are not as significant as culture and education.