Nokea
The APGAR is performed at what minutes?
- A. 1 and 5
- B. 2 and 4
- C. 5 and 10
- D. At birth and 5 minutes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The APGAR score is a quick assessment tool used to evaluate a newborn's health and overall condition immediately after birth and again at 5 minutes after birth. The five categories evaluated in the APGAR score are Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration. The assessment is typically done at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth to quickly determine if the baby needs any immediate medical attention or interventions. The scores at both time points provide valuable information about the baby's well-being and can guide healthcare providers in deciding on appropriate next steps for care.
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A woman's temperature has just risen 0.4°F and will remain elevated during the remainder of her cycle. She expects to menstruate in about 2 weeks. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the change?
- A. Progesterone
- B. Follicle stimulating hormone
- C. Luteinizing hormone
- D. Estrogen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The hormone responsible for the increase in body temperature prior to menstruation is estrogen. Estrogen is the primary female sex hormone that plays a key role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Around the time of ovulation, estrogen levels peak, which can lead to a slight rise in body temperature. This increase in temperature is known as the "estrogenic temperature shift" and is a normal part of the menstrual cycle. The rise in body temperature indicates that ovulation has occurred and that a woman is approaching her fertile window. Estrogen also helps prepare the uterine lining for pregnancy and plays a role in many other reproductive functions.
A nurse in a woman's health clinic is obtaining a health history from a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
- A. Recurrent Cystitis
- B. Frequent Alcohol Use
- C. Use of Oral Contraceptives
- D. Chlamydia Infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is commonly caused by untreated or inadequately treated sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia and gonorrhea. When these infections ascend through the reproductive organs, they can lead to inflammation, scarring, and damage to the reproductive structures, resulting in PID. It is crucial for healthcare providers to identify and treat chlamydia infections promptly to prevent complications like PID. Recurrent cystitis (choice A), frequent alcohol use (choice B), and use of oral contraceptives (choice C) do not directly increase the risk for PID as compared to a sexually transmitted infection like chlamydia.
Which data in the patient's history should the nurse recognize as being pertinent to a possible diagnosis of postpartum depression?
- A. Previous depressive episode
- B. Unexpected operative birth
- C. Ambivalence during the first trimester
- D. Second pregnancy in a 3-year period
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A previous history of depression is a significant risk factor for postpartum depression. Women who have experienced a depressive episode in the past are more likely to develop postpartum depression compared to those without such a history. Recognizing this pertinent data in the patient's history can help the nurse identify individuals at higher risk for postpartum depression and provide appropriate support and intervention. The other options mentioned (B. Unexpected operative birth, C. Ambivalence during the first trimester, D. Second pregnancy in a 3-year period) may also contribute to emotional distress but are not as directly linked to postpartum depression as a previous depressive episode.
A woman is being treated for preterm labor with magnesium
- A. The nurse is concerned that the patient is experiencing early drug toxicity. Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates early toxicity?
- B. Patellar reflexes are weak and absent
- C. RR 16
- D. Fetal HR 120
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct assessment finding that indicates early toxicity related to magnesium sulfate administration is the patient complaining of feeling flushed and warm. These symptoms could indicate that the patient is experiencing magnesium toxicity, which can lead to vasodilation and hypotension. Other signs of magnesium toxicity include decreased deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and loss of consciousness. It's essential for the nurse to recognize these early signs of toxicity and intervene promptly to prevent further complications.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the arterial blood gas results for a client in the ICU who has kidney failure and determines the client has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Widened QRS complexes
- B. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
- C. Bounding peripheral pulses
- D. Warm, flushed skin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, leading to acidosis. This condition can affect the heart's electrical conduction system, resulting in widened QRS complexes on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, bounding peripheral pulses, and warm, flushed skin are not typically associated with respiratory acidosis.