Nokea
The assessment of a 72-year-old male causes the NP to have concerns that the pt. is a suicide risk. Risk factors for suicide in the elderly do NOT include
- A. Chronic pain
- B. Comorbid physical illness
- C. Family history of suicide
- D. Retirement
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Retirement. Retirement is not a known risk factor for suicide in the elderly. Here's the rationale:
1. Chronic pain (choice A) and comorbid physical illness (choice B) are risk factors as they can contribute to feelings of hopelessness and despair.
2. Family history of suicide (choice C) is a significant risk factor due to the genetic and environmental influences.
3. Retirement (choice D) does not directly increase the risk of suicide. In fact, many individuals find purpose and fulfillment in retirement.
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What is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction in older men?
- A. Psychological stress
- B. Adverse drug reaction
- C. Atherosclerosis
- D. Autonomic neuropathy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is the most common cause of erectile dysfunction in older men as it leads to reduced blood flow to the penis, affecting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. Psychological stress (A) can contribute to erectile dysfunction but is not the primary cause. Adverse drug reactions (B) can also lead to erectile dysfunction, but it is not as common as atherosclerosis. Autonomic neuropathy (D) can affect nerve impulses in the penis but is not as prevalent as atherosclerosis in causing erectile dysfunction in older men.
Which form of urinary incontinence is present in a patient with Alzheimer’s disease who is unable to reach the toilet in time?
- A. Functional incontinence
- B. Overflow incontinence
- C. Urge incontinence
- D. Stress incontinence
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Functional incontinence is the correct answer. This occurs when a person has physical or cognitive impairments that prevent them from reaching the toilet in time. In Alzheimer's disease, the patient's cognitive decline may impede their ability to recognize the need to urinate or navigate to the restroom. Overflow incontinence is due to bladder overdistention, urge incontinence is characterized by a sudden and overwhelming urge to urinate, and stress incontinence is associated with physical activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure. Hence, in this scenario, functional incontinence aligns with the patient's inability to reach the toilet promptly due to their Alzheimer's disease-related cognitive limitations.
A 50-year-old male has a non-tender, enlarged scrotum. The nurse practitioner suspects which of the following conditions:
- A. Orchitis
- B. Epididymitis
- C. Hydrocele
- D. Prostatitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrocele. A hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac surrounding the testicle, causing scrotal enlargement without tenderness. Orchitis (A) is inflammation of the testicle, presenting with pain and tenderness. Epididymitis (B) is inflammation of the epididymis, also causing tenderness. Prostatitis (D) involves inflammation of the prostate gland, not related to scrotal enlargement. In this case, the lack of tenderness and presence of scrotal enlargement point towards a hydrocele as the likely condition.
When treating a patient with asthma who is experiencing acute wheezing, which medication should be given to relieve the symptoms?
- A. Short acting bronchodilator
- B. Long acting bronchodilator
- C. Inhaled corticosteroid
- D. Combination of methylxanthine and long acting bronchodilator
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Short acting bronchodilator. During an acute asthma attack, a short-acting bronchodilator (such as albuterol) is the preferred medication to relieve symptoms quickly by dilating the airways. This medication acts rapidly to open up the airways and provide immediate relief of wheezing and shortness of breath. Long-acting bronchodilators (choice B) are not recommended for acute symptom relief. Inhaled corticosteroids (choice C) are used for long-term control of asthma symptoms and not for immediate relief during an acute attack. Combining methylxanthine and long-acting bronchodilator (choice D) is not the standard treatment for acute wheezing in asthma.
Where should the uterine fundus be palpable at 12 weeks?
- A. At the level of the umbilicus
- B. At the level of the symphysis pubis
- C. Midway between the symphysis and umbilicus
- D. Below the symphysis pubis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 12 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus should be palpable at the level of the symphysis pubis. This is because the uterus rises approximately 1 cm above the symphysis pubis each week during the first trimester. By 12 weeks, it should be palpable at this level.
Choice A (At the level of the umbilicus) is incorrect because the fundus is not expected to reach the level of the umbilicus until around 20 weeks.
Choice C (Midway between the symphysis and umbilicus) is incorrect as this would typically occur around 16-18 weeks.
Choice D (Below the symphysis pubis) is also incorrect because by 12 weeks, the fundus should have risen above the symphysis pubis.