Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Related

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The cause of death of most AIDS patients who develop multiple opportunistic infections is/are the following: a.Weakened immune system impairs response to therapy

  • A. AH of these (a, b, c)
  • B. Weakened immune system impairs resistance to infection
  • C. Infection cannot be treated effectively
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Most AIDS patients with multiple opportunistic infections die due to a weakened immune system impairing response to therapy. When the immune system is compromised, the body struggles to fight off infections effectively, even with treatment. This results in the infections becoming more severe and ultimately leading to death.

Summary of Other Choices:
B: Weakened immune system impairs resistance to infection - While this is true, it doesn’t directly address the cause of death in AIDS patients with multiple infections.
C: Infection cannot be treated effectively - This is not entirely accurate as infections can be treated, but the weakened immune system hinders the response to treatment.
Overall, Choice A is the most accurate as it directly links the weakened immune system to the inability to respond effectively to therapy, leading to fatal outcomes.

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The nurse would evaluate that the patient understands what triggers allergic rhinitis by which of the following patient responses?

  • A. “Injected medications.”
  • B. “Ingested food and medications.”
  • C. “Topical creams and ointments.”
  • D. “Airborne pollens and molds.”
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because airborne pollens and molds are common triggers for allergic rhinitis. Understanding these triggers helps in avoiding exposure and managing symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to allergic rhinitis triggers, focusing instead on other forms of medication or topical applications. By understanding airborne triggers, the patient can take appropriate preventive measures.

A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient’s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?

  • A. The nurse makes eye contact with the patient.
  • B. The nurse speaks only to the patient’s daughter.
  • C. The nurse leans forward while talking with the patient.
  • D. The nurse nods periodically while the patient is speaking.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is important for the nurse to communicate directly with the patient, especially when the patient is alert and oriented. Speaking only to the patient's daughter may undermine the patient's autonomy and dignity. It is crucial for the nurse to establish rapport and build a therapeutic relationship with the patient. Making eye contact with the patient (choice A) is a good nonverbal communication technique. Leaning forward while talking with the patient (choice C) shows attentiveness and engagement. Nodding periodically while the patient is speaking (choice D) demonstrates active listening and encourages the patient to continue sharing. However, speaking only to the patient's daughter (choice B) is the incorrect choice as it neglects the patient's role in the conversation and may lead to potential issues in communication and patient-centered care.

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for a client with multiple myeloma?

  • A. Monitoring respiratory status
  • B. Restricting fluid intake
  • C. Balancing rest and activity
  • D. Preventing bone injury
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Preventing bone injury. In multiple myeloma, abnormal plasma cells can weaken bones, leading to fractures. Preventing bone injury involves educating the client on fall prevention, avoiding heavy lifting, and ensuring a safe environment. Monitoring respiratory status (A) is not the priority in multiple myeloma. Restricting fluid intake (B) is not directly related to managing multiple myeloma. Balancing rest and activity (C) is important for overall well-being but does not directly address the specific needs of a client with multiple myeloma.

Which of the following is a discharge criterion from the PACU for a patient following surgery?

  • A. Oxygen saturation above 90%
  • B. IV narcotics given less than 15 minutes ago
  • C. Oxygen saturation below 90%
  • D. IV narcotics given less than 30 minutes ago
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen saturation above 90%. This is a discharge criterion because adequate oxygen saturation indicates the patient is breathing well and there is no immediate respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation below 90% (choice C) would indicate hypoxemia and would not be safe for discharge. IV narcotics given less than 15 minutes ago (choice B) can still be in effect and may impair the patient's ability to function post-surgery. IV narcotics given less than 30 minutes ago (choice D) is a longer timeframe but still not ideal for discharge as the effects of the narcotics may not have fully worn off.

Which of the following immunoglobulins is first produced during an acute infection?

  • A. IgG
  • B. IgE
  • C. IgM
  • D. IgD
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgM. During an acute infection, the body's initial response is rapid and non-specific, leading to the production of IgM antibodies first. IgM is the first immunoglobulin class produced in response to a new antigen, providing immediate protection. IgG is produced later in the immune response and is responsible for long-term immunity. IgE is involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not typically the first response to infection. IgD is primarily found on the surface of B cells and its function is not well understood in the context of acute infections.

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