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The charge nurse has a health care team that consists of 1 PN, 1 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and 1 PN nursing student. Which assignment should be questioned by the nurse manager?
- A. An admission at the change of shifts with atrial fibrillation and heart failure - PN
- B. Client who had a major stroke 6 days ago - PN nursing student
- C. A child with burns who has packed cells and albumin IV running - charge nurse
- D. An elderly client who had a myocardial infarction a week ago - UAP
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assigning an admission with atrial fibrillation and heart failure to a PN is not appropriate. This complex case requires more advanced skills and should not be managed by a PN without adequate support. The PN may not have the necessary training or expertise to handle such a critical situation effectively. Choice B is a suitable assignment for a PN nursing student as they can handle a client who had a major stroke 6 days ago. Choice C is also appropriate as a child with burns receiving packed cells and albumin IV running can be managed by the charge nurse. Choice D is within the scope of practice for a UAP since an elderly client post-myocardial infarction a week ago may require basic care and assistance.
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After repositioning a client who reports shortness of breath, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Observe the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations.
- B. Take the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client's pulse.
- D. Offer supplemental oxygen.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Observing the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations is crucial after repositioning a client experiencing shortness of breath. This action provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Checking blood pressure (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation, as assessing respirations is more urgent. Assessing the pulse (Choice C) is also important but does not provide direct information about the client's respiratory status. Offering supplemental oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary based on the assessment of respirations, but it should not be the first action taken without assessing the client's breathing pattern.
A healthcare professional is providing teaching to a client who had a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the professional include?
- A. Urticaria
- B. Ptosis
- C. Nausea
- D. Hematuria
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. It presents as raised, red, itchy welts on the skin. Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Nausea is a gastrointestinal symptom that can occur with various conditions but is not specific to allergic reactions. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.
A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide to the client?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate can cause irritation to the esophagus, so it is important to take it with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to help prevent this irritation. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice B) may increase the risk of esophageal irritation as lying down can allow the medication to remain in the esophagus longer. Taking the medication with food (choice C) or on an empty stomach (choice D) can also interfere with the absorption of alendronate, reducing its effectiveness in treating osteoporosis.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's fluid and electrolyte status. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. BUN 15 mg/dL
- B. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
- C. Sodium 143 mEq/L
- D. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L is above the expected reference range, indicating hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications such as dysrhythmias, making it important for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and C fall within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health, so they would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Elevated BUN or creatinine levels may indicate kidney dysfunction, while a sodium level of 143 mEq/L falls within the normal range for adults and does not typically require urgent intervention.
A client has C-diff infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Give the client chlorhexidine gluconate for hand hygiene.
- B. Remove the protective gown first when exiting the client's room.
- C. Use alcohol-based hand rub when caring for the client.
- D. Initiate contact precautions when providing client care.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate contact precautions when providing client care. C-diff (Clostridium difficile) is highly contagious, and contact precautions are necessary to prevent its spread. Giving the client chlorhexidine gluconate for hand hygiene (Choice A) is not specific to managing C-diff. Removing the protective gown first when exiting the client's room (Choice B) may increase the risk of contaminating oneself and the environment. Using alcohol-based hand rub when caring for the client (Choice C) is not sufficient to prevent the transmission of C-diff, as soap and water are more effective against this particular pathogen.