Nokea
The charge nurse is reviewing events that staff nurses experienced during the shift. Which events require an incident/occurrence report to be completed? Select all that apply.
- A. Client determined brain dead was taken off life support
- B. Client with alcohol intoxication physically assaulted a nurse
- C. Serum troponin level was prescribed but never obtained
- D. Staff nurse did not present for work and did not notify management
- E. Visitor fell and refused care in the emergency department
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Rationale: Assault, missed lab tests, and staff no-show are reportable incidents due to safety, care quality, and staffing issues. Brain death withdrawal follows protocol, and a visitor’s fall with refused care is less reportable.
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A client is brought to the emergency room with injuries sustained in an auto accident. While performing his assessment, the nurse notes the presence of Cullen's sign. Cullen's sign is suggestive of:
- A. A neurological injury
- B. A ruptured spleen
- C. A bowel perforation
- D. Retroperitoneal bleeding
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cullen's sign, a bluish discoloration around the umbilicus, indicates retroperitoneal or intra-abdominal bleeding, often due to trauma or conditions like pancreatitis. It is not specific to neurological injury, spleen rupture, or bowel perforation.
The nurse approaches a 4-year-old boy to administer a medication. The child has no identification armband. Which action is most appropriate?
- A. Check the room and bed number the child is in with the room and bed number on the medication order and administer the medication if they agree
- B. Ask the child what his name is before administering the medication
- C. Ask the child if his name is George (the name on the medication order) and administer the medication if the child says that is his name
- D. Ask the adults at the bedside what the child's name is and administer the medication if the adults verify the name of the child
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Verifying the child's identity with adults at the bedside ensures safety, as children may not reliably confirm their own identity, and room/bed numbers are not sufficient for identification.
A nurse observes a family member administer a rectal suppository by having the client lie on the left side for the administration. The family member pushed the suppository until the finger went up to the second knuckle. After 10 minutes the client was told by the family member to turn to the right side and the client did this. What is the appropriate comment for the nurse to make?
- A. Why don't we now have the client turn back to the left side.
- B. That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion?
- C. Let's check to see if the suppository is in far enough.
- D. Did you feel any stool in the intestinal tract?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Left side-lying position is the optimal position for the client receiving rectal medications. Due to the position of the descending colon, left side-lying allows the medication to be inserted and move along the natural curve of the intestine and facilitates retention of the medication.
The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with bipolar disorder, manic phase who is taking Eskalith (lithium carbonate). Which of the following snacks would be best for the client?
- A. Potato chips
- B. Diet cola
- C. An apple
- D. A milkshake
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lithium carbonate can cause sodium depletion, and high-sodium snacks like potato chips should be avoided to prevent toxicity. Diet cola lacks nutritional value and may contain caffeine, which can exacerbate mania. An apple is a healthy, low-sodium snack that supports hydration and nutrition. A milkshake may be high in sugar or fat, which is less ideal.
The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for multiple clients receiving opioids for pain management. Which client has the greatest risk for respiratory depression?
- A. 20-year-old client with chronic bronchitis who is receiving inhaled albuterol therapy every 4 hours
- B. 30-year-old client with opioid use disorder who had rotator cuff repair surgery this morning
- C. 50-year-old client with sleep apnea and left foot cellulitis who is scheduled for a bone scan later today
- D. 70-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who had knee replacement this morning
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 70-year-old with COPD is at highest risk for opioid-induced respiratory depression due to age-related reduced lung capacity and COPD-related impaired gas exchange. Chronic bronchitis and opioid use disorder increase risk but are less severe in this context.