The circulating nurse assesses tachycardia and hypotension in the client. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Prepare ice packs and mix dantrolene sodium.
- B. Request the defibrillator be brought into the OR.
- C. Draw a PTT and prepare a heparin drip.
- D. Obtain finger stick blood glucose immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tachycardia and hypotension suggest shock or arrhythmia, requiring a defibrillator for potential cardioversion. Dantrolene is for malignant hyperthermia, heparin for clotting, and glucose is unrelated.
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Which client outcome would the nurse identify for the preoperative client?
- A. The client's abnormal laboratory data will be reported to the anesthesiologist.
- B. The client will not have any postoperative complications for the first 24 hours.
- C. The client will demonstrate the use of a pillow to splint while deep breathing.
- D. The client will complete an advance directive before having the surgery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Demonstrating pillow splinting for deep breathing prepares the client to prevent atelectasis, a measurable preoperative outcome. Lab reporting, complication-free periods, and advance directives are not client actions.
The nurse must obtain surgical consent forms for the scheduled surgery. Which client would not be able to consent legally to surgery?
- A. The 65-year-old client who cannot read or write.
- B. The 30-year-old client who does not understand English.
- C. The 16-year-old client who has a fractured ankle.
- D. The 80-year-old client who is not oriented to the day.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Legal consent requires mental competency; disorientation to the day suggests incapacity. Illiteracy, language barriers (with interpreters), and minors (with parental consent) do not preclude consent.
The nurse is completing a preoperative assessment on a male client who states, 'I am allergic to codeine.' Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Apply an allergy bracelet on the client's wrist.
- B. Label the client's allergies on the front of the chart.
- C. Ask the client what happens when he takes the codeine.
- D. Document the allergy on the medication administration record.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Asking about the reaction verifies the allergy type (e.g., anaphylaxis vs. nausea), guiding safe care. Bracelet, labeling, and documentation follow verification.
The client one (1) day postoperative develops an elevated temperature. Which intervention would have priority for the client?
- A. Encourage the client to deep breathe and cough every hour.
- B. Encourage the client to drink 200 mL of water every shift.
- C. Monitor the client's wound for drainage every eight (8) hours.
- D. Assess the urine output for color and clarity every four (4) hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fever post-surgery often stems from atelectasis; deep breathing and coughing prevent respiratory complications, the priority. Hydration, wound monitoring, and urine assessment are secondary.
The nurse received a male client from the postanesthesia care unit. Which assessment data would warrant immediate intervention?
- A. The client's vital signs are T 97°F, P 108, R 24, and BP 80/40.
- B. The client is sleepy but opens the eyes to his name.
- C. The client is complaining of pain at a '5' on a 1-to-10 pain scale.
- D. The client has 20 mL of urine in the urinary drainage bag.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension (80/40) suggest hypovolemic shock, requiring immediate intervention. Sleepiness, moderate pain, and low urine output are less urgent.