Nokea
The physician prescribes sucralfate (Carafate) 1 gm PO tid and 2 Maalox tablets tid for a 50-year-old man in the outpatient clinic.
The client asks the nurse when to take these medications. The nurse should advise the man to take
- A. the Carafate and the Maalox 1 hour ac.
- B. the Maalox 1 hour ac and the Carafate 1 hour pc.
- C. the Carafate and the Maalox 2 hours pc and hs.
- D. the Carafate 1 hour ac and the Maalox 1 hour pc.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) Maalox (antacids) decreases bonding to GI mucosa, don't give within 30 minutes of each other (2) Carafate best results on empty stomach, antacids decrease bonding to GI mucosa, so don't give within 30 minutes of each other (3) antacids decrease bonding to GI mucosa, so don't give within 30 minutes of each other (4) correct-Carafate has best results on empty stomach
You may also like to solve these questions
A client weighing 76 kg is admitted at 0600 with a TBSA burn of 40%. Using the Parkland formula, the client's 24-hour intravenous fluid replacement should be:
- A. 6,080 ml
- B. 9,120 ml
- C. 12,160 ml
- D. 15,180 ml
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Parkland formula is 4 ml × kg × TBSA = 24-hour fluid requirement, or 4 × 76 × 40 = 12,160 ml. Answer A is the fluid requirement for the first 8 hours after burn injury, so it's incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because it's the fluid requirement for 16 hours after burn injury. Answer D is an excessive amount given the client's weight and TBSA, so it's incorrect.
The nurse should explain to a client that tolbutamide (Orinase) is effective for diabetics who
- A. For which type of diabetic is tolbutamide (Orinase) effective?
- B. Can no longer produce any insulin.
- C. Produce minimal amounts of insulin.
- D. Are unable to administer their injections.
- E. Have a sustained decreased blood glucose.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tolbutamide, an oral hypoglycemic, is effective for type II diabetics who produce minimal insulin, enhancing insulin release. Type I diabetics (no insulin production) require insulin injections, and the other options do not align with tolbutamide’s mechanism or indications.
A 34-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse not expect to see during an attack?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension
- B. Diaphoresis
- C. Apprehension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pheochromocytoma causes catecholamine release, leading to tachycardia, not bradycardia, during an attack.
The nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease about sevelamer (Renagel). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should take this medication with meals.
- B. I should report constipation to my doctor.
- C. I should avoid taking this with my calcium supplement.
- D. I should stop this medication if my phosphate levels are normal.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stopping sevelamer when phosphate levels are normal is incorrect, as chronic kidney disease requires ongoing phosphate control to prevent complications. Options A, B, and C are correct: taking with meals binds phosphate, constipation is a side effect, and calcium supplements interfere with absorption.
The client is to be discharged after passing a uric acid kidney stone. This is the third time the client has been hospitalized for kidney stones. The nurse should teach the client to do which of the following?
- A. Eat generous amounts of chicken and organ meats
- B. Drink lots of water
- C. Avoid vigorous activity
- D. Take the ordered allopurinol (Zyloprim) if the symptoms recur
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Increased fluid intake (lots of water) prevents stone formation by diluting urine. High-purine foods (meats), activity avoidance, or conditional allopurinol are incorrect.