Nokea
The client diagnosed with an acute exacerbation of SLE is being discharged with a prescription for an oral steroid which will be discontinued gradually. Which statement is the scientific rationale for this type of medication dosing?
- A. Tapering the medication prevents the client from having withdrawal symptoms.
- B. So the thyroid gland starts working, because this medication stops it from working.
- C. Tapering the dose allows the adrenal glands to begin to produce cortisol again.
- D. This is the health-care provider's personal choice in prescribing the medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tapering steroids allows adrenal glands to resume cortisol production, preventing adrenal insufficiency. Withdrawal symptoms are secondary, thyroid is unaffected, and it’s not provider preference.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is assessing a client with cutaneous lupus erythematosus. Which intervention should be implemented?
- A. Use astringent lotion on the face and skin.
- B. Inspect the skin weekly for open areas or rashes.
- C. Dry the skin thoroughly by patting.
- D. Apply anti-itch medication between the toes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patting the skin dry prevents irritation in cutaneous lupus. Astringents worsen dryness, weekly inspections are too infrequent, and toe medication is irrelevant.
Which signs/symptoms should the nurse expect to assess in the client diagnosed with Sjögren's syndrome?
- A. Complaints of dry mouth and eyes.
- B. Complaints of peripheral joint pain.
- C. Complaints of muscle weakness.
- D. Complaints of severe itching.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dry mouth and eyes (sicca symptoms) are hallmark signs of Sjögren’s syndrome. Joint pain, weakness, and itching are less specific.
The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with Multi Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS) is preparing to administer morning medications. Which medication would the nurse question?
- A. Cefazolin sodium IVPB every six (6) hours.
- B. Furosemide by mouth twice daily.
- C. Metoprolol IVP every four (4) hours and prn.
- D. Acetaminophen by mouth every four (4) hours prn.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metoprolol IVP every 4 hours in MODS risks hypotension in cardiovascular dysfunction. Cefazolin, furosemide, and acetaminophen are appropriate.
Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the female client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Select all that apply.
- A. Recommend the client not to engage in unprotected sexual activity.
- B. Instruct the client not to inform past sexual partners of HIV status.
- C. Tell the client to not donate blood, organs, or tissues.
- D. Suggest the client not get pregnant.
- E. Explain the client does not have to tell health-care personnel of HIV status.
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: Unprotected sex, blood/organ donation, and pregnancy risk HIV transmission or complications. Partner notification and informing healthcare personnel are recommended.
The female client is homeless and pregnant. The client supports an IV drug habit by prostitution. Which data would be considered antecedents (risk factor) for becoming HIV positive? Select all that apply.
- A. The client is pregnant.
- B. The client is an intravenous drug abuser.
- C. The client has multiple sexual partners.
- D. The client does not have available health care.
- E. The client does not have adequate bathroom facilities.
- F. The client spends her money on nonessential items.
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Rationale: IV drug use, multiple sexual partners, and lack of healthcare increase HIV risk. Pregnancy, bathroom facilities, and spending are not direct risk factors.