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The client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus is receiving vasopressin intranasally. Which assessment data indicate the medication is effective?
- A. The client reports being able to breathe through the nose.
- B. The client complains of being thirsty all the time.
- C. The client has a blood glucose of 99 mg/dL.
- D. The client is urinating every three (3) to four (4) hours.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vasopressin reduces polyuria in diabetes insipidus; urination every 3–4 hours indicates effectiveness. Nasal breathing, thirst, or glucose are unrelated.
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A client is ordered atropine to be administered preoperatively. Which physiological effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Elevate blood pressure
- B. Drying up of secretions
- C. Reduce heart rate
- D. Enhance sedation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Drying up of secretions. Atropine dries secretions which may get in the way during the operative procedure.
The client recently has had a myocardial infarction. Which medications should the nurse anticipate the health-care provider recommending to prevent another heart attack?
- A. Vitamin K and a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.
- B. Vitamin E and a daily low-dose aspirin.
- C. Vitamin A and an anticoagulant.
- D. Vitamin B complex and an iron supplement.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Low-dose aspirin prevents platelet aggregation, reducing MI risk, per ACC/AHA guidelines. Vitamin E lacks evidence for secondary prevention; other options are irrelevant or contraindicated.
The client diagnosed with angina must receive a two (2)-inch nitroglycerin paste (Nitro-Bid) application. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Wear gloves when administering.
- B. Remove the old Nitro-Bid paper.
- C. Apply the paper on a hairy spot.
- D. Put medication only on the legs.
- E. Report any headache to the HCP.
Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale: Gloves prevent nurse absorption, and removing old paste ensures accurate dosing. Hairy spots reduce adhesion, leg-only application is incorrect, and headaches are expected.
A young woman delivered a 7-lb, 8-oz baby boy spontaneously. Ergotrate 0.4 mg q6h for five days is ordered. A half-hour after the nurse administers the first dose, she complains of abdominal cramping. The nurse's best response is based on which understanding?
- A. Cramping indicates a serious adverse reaction.
- B. Cramping can be reduced by abdominal breathing.
- C. The medication is having the desired effect.
- D. The dosage needs to be reduced.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ergotrate causes uterine contractions, leading to cramping, which is the intended effect to prevent postpartum hemorrhage.
The elderly client is admitted to the emergency department from a long-term care facility. The client has multiple ecchymotic areas on the body. The client is receiving digoxin, a cardiac glycoside; Lasix, a loop diuretic; Coumadin, an anticoagulant; and Xanax, an antianxiety medication. Which order should the nurse request from the health-care provider?
- A. A STAT serum potassium level.
- B. An order to admit to the hospital for observation.
- C. An order to administer Valium intravenous push.
- D. A STAT international normalized ratio (INR).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ecchymosis with Coumadin suggests bleeding risk; STAT INR assesses anticoagulation status, guiding reversal if needed. Potassium, admission, or Valium are less urgent.