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The client diagnosed with diverticulitis is complaining of severe pain in the left lower quadrant and has an oral temperature of 100.6°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Notify the health-care provider.
- B. Document the findings in the chart.
- C. Administer an oral antipyretic.
- D. Assess the client's abdomen.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Assessing the abdomen first provides critical data on tenderness, rigidity, or rebound, which could indicate complications like perforation, guiding further actions. Notification or medication follows assessment.
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The client who is obese presents to the clinic before beginning a weight loss program. Which interventions should the nurse teach? Select all that apply.
- A. Walk for 30 minutes three (3) times a day.
- B. Determine situations that initiate eating behavior.
- C. Weigh at the same time every day.
- D. Limit sodium in the diet.
- E. Refer to a weight support group.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale: Walking, identifying eating triggers, consistent weighing, and support groups promote sustainable weight loss. Sodium restriction is less critical unless hypertension is present.
The client with a diagnosis of rule-out colon cancer is two (2) hours post-sigmoidoscopy procedure. Which assessment data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. The client has hyperactive bowel sounds.
- B. The client is eating a hamburger the family brought.
- C. The client is sleepy and wants to sleep.
- D. The client's BP is 96/60 and apical pulse is 108.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low BP (96/60) and tachycardia (pulse 108) suggest hypovolemia or bleeding post-sigmoidoscopy, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperactive bowel sounds, eating, and sleepiness are less urgent.
The nurse is caring for clients on a surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client who had an inguinal hernia repair and has not voided in four (4) hours.
- B. The client who was admitted with abdominal pain who suddenly has no pain.
- C. The client four (4) hours postoperative abdominal surgery with no bowel sounds.
- D. The client who is one (1) day postappendectomy and is being discharged.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden resolution of abdominal pain may indicate perforation (e.g., appendicitis), a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate assessment. Urinary retention, absent bowel sounds, and discharge are less urgent.
The nurse is preparing a client diagnosed with GERD for surgery. Which information warrants notifying the HCP?
- A. The client's Bernstein esophageal test was positive.
- B. The client's abdominal x-ray shows a hiatal hernia.
- C. The client's WBC count is 14,000/mm3.
- D. The client's hemoglobin is 13.8 g/dL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An elevated WBC count (14,000/mm3) suggests infection or inflammation, which could complicate surgery and requires immediate attention. A positive Bernstein test and hiatal hernia are expected in GERD, and a hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL is within normal limits.
An adult is being treated for a peptic ulcer. The physician has prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) for which reason?
- A. It blocks the secretion of gastric hydrochloric acid.
- B. It coats the gastric mucosa with a protective membrane.
- C. It increases the sensitivity of histamine (H2) receptors.
- D. It neutralizes acid in the stomach.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cimetidine, an H2 receptor blocker, reduces gastric acid secretion, aiding peptic ulcer healing.