The client diagnosed with HIV is taught by the nurse that the condition is transmitted through
- A. the infection passed from a mother to her baby
- B. Tears
- C. human bites
- D. insect bites
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HIV can be transmitted from a mother to her baby during childbirth or breastfeeding, making choice A the correct answer. Tears, human bites, and insect bites are not common modes of HIV transmission. While human bites can potentially transmit the virus, it is less common compared to mother-to-child transmission.
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Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?
- A. Oral feeding of a two-year-old child after application of a hip spica cast
- B. Assessment of the placement and patency of a NG tube
- C. Participation in staff rounds to record notes regarding client goals
- D. Evaluation of a client's incisional pain following narcotic administration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.
What is the most effective method to prevent medication errors during administration?
- A. Relying on memory for medication dosages
- B. Using a bar-code medication administration system
- C. Administering medications as quickly as possible to avoid delays
- D. Allowing another individual to administer medications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using a bar-code medication administration system is the best method to prevent medication errors during administration. This system verifies medication details electronically, ensuring that the correct medication is given to the right patient. Relying on memory for medication dosages (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to errors. Administering medications quickly (choice C) may increase the risk of mistakes due to haste. Allowing another individual (choice D) to administer medications does not address the root cause of preventing errors during administration.
A client is post-operative day one following an open cholecystectomy. The nurse notices the client's drainage from the T-tube is dark green. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Document the finding as normal.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Decrease the suction on the T-tube.
- D. Flush the T-tube with saline to ensure patency.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dark green drainage from a T-tube after a cholecystectomy is bile, which is an expected finding. Bile is normally dark green in color. It is important for the nurse to recognize this as a normal post-operative occurrence and document the finding. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider immediately as this finding is an anticipated part of the client's recovery. Decreasing the suction on the T-tube or flushing it with saline is unnecessary and may not be indicated based on the color of the drainage. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to document the dark green drainage as a normal finding.
Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin B12
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Vitamin D
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.
After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
- A. Poor appetite and refusal to eat
- B. Systolic blood pressure at 102
- C. Painful moaning and crying
- D. Urinary output of 20 ml/hr
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.