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What does pulse oximetry measure?
- A. Arterial blood gases
- B. Hemoglobin values
- C. Oxygen consumption
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation in the blood by analyzing the absorption of light by hemoglobin. Oxygen saturation indicates the percentage of hemoglobin molecules carrying oxygen. This is essential for assessing respiratory function and oxygen delivery to tissues. Arterial blood gases (Choice A) directly measure oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood, not specifically oxygen saturation. Hemoglobin values (Choice B) provide information about the amount of hemoglobin present but not its oxygen-carrying capacity. Oxygen consumption (Choice C) is a measure of how much oxygen is used by tissues, not what pulse oximetry directly measures.
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Continuous venovenous hemodialysis is used to
- A. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.
- B. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.
- C. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.
- D. combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodialysis combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques. Ultrafiltration removes excess fluid, convection helps in removing solutes, and dialysis involves the diffusion of solutes across a semipermeable membrane. This comprehensive approach ensures effective removal of both fluid and solutes in critically ill patients.
Incorrect Answer Analysis:
A: Removing fluids and solutes through convection alone is not the complete process in continuous venovenous hemodialysis.
B: While volume overload is addressed, continuous venovenous hemodialysis involves more than just removing plasma water.
C: Adding dialysate is not the primary method in continuous venovenous hemodialysis; it involves ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques.
The nurse calculates the PaO /FiO ratio for the following values: PaO is 78 mm Hg; FiO is 2 2 2 2 6 (60%). What is the outcome and the relationship to the ARDS diagnosing criteria?
- A. 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS
- B. 130; meets criteria for ARDS
- C. 468; normal lung function
- D. Not enough data to compute the ratio
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS. The PaO /FiO ratio is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO). In this case, PaO is 78 mm Hg and FiO is 0.6 (60%). Therefore, the calculation would be 78/0.6 = 130. This value is less than 300, which is indicative of ARDS according to the Berlin criteria. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the criteria for ARDS. Choice D is incorrect because the data provided is sufficient to compute the ratio.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being evaluated clianbiircba.clolmy/ tfeostr brain death by a primary care provider. Which assessment findings by the nurse sup port brain death?
- A. Absence of a corneal reflex
- B. Unequal, reactive pupils
- C. Withdrawal from painful stimuli
- D. Core temperature of 100.8° F
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, absence of a corneal reflex, because in brain death, all brainstem reflexes, including the corneal reflex, are absent. This indicates complete loss of brain function. Choice B, unequal reactive pupils, is incorrect as it suggests some level of brainstem function. Choice C, withdrawal from painful stimuli, is also incorrect as it is a spinal reflex and can occur even in the absence of brain function. Choice D, core temperature of 100.8° F, is irrelevant to assessing brain death.
The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a traumatic brain injury following a motor vehicle crash. The patient’s Glasgow Coma Score is 3 anda binirbte.cromm/ittetset ntly withdraws when painful stimuli are introduced. The patient is ventilator dependent and occasionally takes a spontaneous breath. The primary care provider explains to the family that the patient has severe neurological impairment and it is not expected that the patient will ever recover consciousness. What concept does this situation depict?
- A. An organ donor
- B. Brain death
- C. A persistent vegetative state
- D. Terminally ill
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A persistent vegetative state. This choice is correct because the patient exhibits minimal responsiveness, only withdrawing to painful stimuli, and lacks meaningful interaction or consciousness. A persistent vegetative state is characterized by preserved wakefulness without awareness, which aligns with the patient's condition.
Choice A: An organ donor is incorrect because the patient's neurological impairment does not necessarily indicate readiness for organ donation.
Choice B: Brain death is incorrect because the patient still exhibits some reflexive responses, indicating a level of brain function beyond brain death.
Choice D: Terminally ill is incorrect as it does not specifically address the patient's neurological status and prognosis, which is better described by a persistent vegetative state.
What factors associated with the critical care unit can pred ispose the client to increased pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Presence of an endotracheal tub
- B. Frequent vital sign assessment
- C. Monitor alarms
- D. Room temperature
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of an endotracheal tube can predispose the client to increased pain and anxiety due to discomfort, difficulty breathing, and potential for aspiration. The tube insertion process itself can be painful and traumatic. Frequent vital sign assessment, monitor alarms, and room temperature are not directly associated with increased pain and anxiety from the endotracheal tube.