Nokea
The client had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago and reports experiencing numbness and tingling of the face. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Open and prepare the tracheostomy kit.
- B. Inspect the neck for an increase in swelling.
- C. Monitor for the presence of Chvostek's sign.
- D. Assess lung sounds for laryngeal stridor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for the presence of Chvostek's sign. Chvostek's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, a common complication after thyroidectomy. Numbness and tingling around the face are associated with hypocalcemia due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to decreased calcium levels. Inspecting the neck for swelling (choice B) is important but does not directly address the presenting symptoms. Opening and preparing the tracheostomy kit (choice A) is not necessary based on the client's current symptoms. Assessing lung sounds for laryngeal stridor (choice D) is not directly related to the client's reported numbness and tingling of the face.
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The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis?
- A. Frequent use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion
- B. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods
- C. Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain
- D. Marked weight loss and appetite over the last 3 to 4 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain.' This symptom is a classic presentation of peptic ulcer disease. Antacids (choice A) may provide relief but do not confirm the diagnosis. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea (choice B) are more suggestive of other conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. Weight loss and appetite changes (choice D) are non-specific and could be related to various health issues.
The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?
- A. 11 AM, shortly before lunch.
- B. 1 PM, shortly after lunch.
- C. 6 PM, shortly after dinner.
- D. 1 AM, while sleeping.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.
What is the most common cause of coronary artery disease?
- A. Atherosclerosis.
- B. Hyperlipidemia.
- C. Diabetes.
- D. Smoking.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Atherosclerosis. It is the primary cause of coronary artery disease, as it involves the buildup of plaque in the arteries, restricting blood flow to the heart. Hyperlipidemia (choice B) contributes to atherosclerosis by increasing cholesterol levels in the blood but is not the direct cause of coronary artery disease. Diabetes (choice C) can accelerate atherosclerosis due to high blood sugar levels, but it is not the most common cause. Smoking (choice D) is a significant risk factor for developing coronary artery disease but is not the primary cause.
A client who experienced partial-thickness burns involving over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago has several open wounds and develops watery diarrhea. The client's blood pressure is 82/40 mmHg, and temperature is 96°F (36.6°C). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Increase the room temperature.
- B. Assess the oxygen saturation.
- C. Continue to monitor vital signs.
- D. Notify the rapid response team.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of sepsis, such as hypotension, hypothermia, and a recent history of partial-thickness burns with open wounds. The development of watery diarrhea further raises suspicion for sepsis. With a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg and a low temperature of 96°F (36.6°C), the nurse should recognize the potential for septic shock. Notifying the rapid response team is crucial in this situation as the client requires immediate intervention and management to prevent deterioration and address the underlying septic process. Increasing the room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as the low body temperature is likely due to systemic vasodilation and not environmental factors. While assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important, the client's hypotension and hypothermia take precedence. Continuing to monitor vital signs (Choice C) alone is insufficient given the critical condition of the client and the need for prompt action to address the sepsis and potential septic shock.
A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Call for the physician.
- B. Start an IV infusion.
- C. Obtain a portable chest radiograph.
- D. Draw blood for laboratory studies.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client presenting with possible myocardial infarction who is receiving oxygen therapy and cardiac monitoring, the next priority action is to establish IV access by starting an IV infusion. This allows for prompt administration of medications and fluids as needed in the management of acute coronary syndromes. Calling the physician (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate next step. Obtaining a portable chest radiograph (Choice C) may help in further assessment but is not as crucial as establishing IV access. Drawing blood for laboratory studies (Choice D) is important for diagnostic purposes but is not as urgent compared to starting an IV infusion in the setting of a potential myocardial infarction.