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The client has a new prescription for metoclopramide. The nurse notifies the HCP because the client has a contraindication for metoclopramide use. Which information in the client's medical record most likely prompted the nurse's notification of the HCP?
- A. Use of nasogastric suctioning
- B. History of diabetes mellitus
- C. History of seizure disorders
- D. Chemotherapy treatment for cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: The use of NG suctioning alone would not prevent metoclopramide use. Metoclopramide can be administered through the NG tube; the tube is then clamped for an hour after administration until absorption occurs. B: Metoclopramide should be used with caution with DM, but it is not contraindicated. C: The client's history of a seizure disorder would contraindicate the use of metoclopramide. Because metoclopramide (Reglan) blocks dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the CNS, it is contraindicated in seizure disorders. D: Metoclopramide is used in the treatment of nausea and vomiting for clients receiving chemotherapy.
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The HCP prescribed a dose of acetaminophen according to weight recommendations for the child weighing 48 lb. The package insert states that the recommended dose is 15 mg per kg. What dose should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: 327
Rationale: First change 48 lb into kilograms (48 / 2.2 = 21.8 kg). Next determine the dose (21.8 kg x 15 = 327 mg). The child should receive 327 mg of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
The LPN receives a call from a mother caring for her eight-month-old infant. The mother describes that the child has a low-grade fever and has teeth breaking through the gums. Which of the following measures would be inappropriate to recommend to the mother?
- A. Allow the child to chew on a cooled teething ring.
- B. Massage the child's gums gently.
- C. Administer acetaminophen.
- D. Administer aspirin.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin should not be recommended as a pain medication for children due to the increased risk of Reye's syndrome.
The nurse is developing the plan of care for the 7-year-old with encopresis who has been started on lactulose. Which outcome would be most appropriate for the nurse to establish?
- A. 2-pound weight gain
- B. Nighttime continence
- C. Blood glucose 70-110 mg/dL
- D. Normal bowel movement daily
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: Weight gain is not expected with an osmotic laxative. B: Nighttime continence is not expected to be altered by an osmotic laxative. C: Blood glucose is not expected to be altered by an osmotic laxative. D: Lactulose (Constulose) is an osmotic laxative used in treating encopresis to prevent constipation; the nurse should establish an outcome of a normal daily bowel movement.
The nurse is teaching the parent of the 3-year-old being treated with vincristine sulfate for Wilms' tumor. The nurse should inform the parents to immediately notify the HCP of which most significant adverse effect?
- A. The child develops diarrhea.
- B. The child's hair begins to fall out.
- C. The child develops dysphagia and paresthesia.
- D. The child has signs or symptoms of depression.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: Both diarrhea and severe constipation are adverse effects of vincristine, and prophylactic treatment is implemented at the beginning of therapy to decrease the potential of these occurring. B: Hair loss is a common adverse reaction to the medication and is reversible. C: Dysphagia and paresthesia are CNS adverse effects from vincristine sulfate (Oncovin). The nurse should teach the parent to notify the HCP immediately if these occur. D: Three-year-olds may not show signs or symptoms of depression. If present, the signs and symptoms should be distinguished as being associated with the neoplastic disease itself or as side effects of the medication.
The nurse is leading a group session for clients with panic disorder. Which statement made by the client indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. I need to be able to identify triggers that escalate my anxiety to the point of panic.
- B. Diazepam is the long-term medication of choice because of its nonaddicting quality.
- C. Citalopram has been found to be helpful in the long-term treatment of panic disorder.
- D. I can use guided imagery and meditation to effectively reduce my anxiety symptoms.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone, not diazepam (Valium), is the long-term medication of choice for panic disorder due to its nonaddicting quality.