Nokea
The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
- A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
- C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
- D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain medication as prescribed. This is the highest priority because acute pancreatitis is a painful condition, and managing pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain control also helps reduce stress on the pancreas and can aid in preventing complications.
Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels is important in diagnosing pancreatitis and assessing response to treatment, it is not the highest priority intervention.
Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral intake of clear liquids may exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms and lead to further complications.
Choice D is incorrect as assessing bowel sounds, while important for monitoring gastrointestinal function, is not the highest priority in the acute management of pancreatitis.
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A primipara at 38-weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for a biophysical profile (BPP). The nurse should prepare the client for what procedures?
- A. Chorionic villus sampling under ultrasound.
- B. Amniocentesis and fetal monitoring.
- C. Ultrasonography and nonstress test.
- D. Oxytocin challenge test and fetal heart rate monitoring.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ultrasonography and nonstress test. At 38 weeks gestation, a biophysical profile (BPP) is typically done to assess fetal well-being. Ultrasonography is used to evaluate fetal movements, tone, breathing movements, and amniotic fluid volume. The nonstress test assesses fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement, indicating fetal well-being. Chorionic villus sampling (A) and amniocentesis (B) are invasive procedures not typically done as part of a routine BPP. Oxytocin challenge test (D) is not indicated in this scenario as it is used to assess placental function in high-risk pregnancies.
What action should the healthcare provider take to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation in a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy?
- A. Administer an antiemetic before starting the chemotherapy.
- B. Instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids during the treatment.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated until the treatment is completed.
- D. Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor the client's intravenous site hourly during the treatment. This is crucial to reduce the risk of vesicant extravasation, which can cause tissue damage if the chemotherapy leaks into the surrounding tissues. By monitoring the IV site hourly, the healthcare provider can detect any signs of infiltration or extravasation early and take necessary actions to prevent further harm.
A: Administering an antiemetic before starting chemotherapy is unrelated to preventing vesicant extravasation.
B: Instructing the client to drink plenty of fluids does not directly address the risk of vesicant extravasation.
C: Keeping the head of the bed elevated is not specific to preventing vesicant extravasation and may not effectively reduce the risk.
A client with a severe head injury is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Urine output of 100 mL/hour.
- B. Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute.
- D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. Elevated ICP can lead to increased intracranial pressure, which can further damage brain tissue and impair cerebral perfusion. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent further brain damage.
A: Urine output of 100 mL/hour is within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition.
C: Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/minute is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate concern.
D: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 70 mm Hg is within the normal range for most adults and does not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?
- A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
- B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
- C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
- D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
Rationale:
1. The ECG rhythm shows regular narrow complex tachycardia, likely supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
2. Adenosine is the first-line medication for terminating SVT by blocking conduction through the AV node.
3. Adenosine is given rapidly as a bolus dose followed by a saline flush to ensure quick delivery to the heart.
4. Adenosine has a very short half-life, making it safe to use in this scenario.
Summary:
A: Magnesium is not the first-line treatment for SVT.
B: Heparin is not indicated for the management of SVT.
D: Synchronized cardioversion is reserved for unstable patients with hemodynamic compromise, not indicated for stable SVT.
A 9-year-old female client was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which symptom will her parents most likely report?
- A. Refuses to eat her favorite meals at home.
- B. Drinks more soft drinks than previously.
- C. Voids only one or two times per day.
- D. Gained 10 pounds within one month.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because increased thirst and drinking more fluids than usual is a common symptom of diabetes mellitus due to high blood sugar levels causing dehydration. Refusing to eat favorite meals (choice A) is not a typical symptom. Voids only one or two times per day (choice C) is more related to urinary issues than diabetes. Gaining 10 pounds within one month (choice D) is not a specific symptom of diabetes and can be attributed to various factors.