Nokea
The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
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A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?
- A. Near vision
- B. Central vision
- C. Peripheral vision
- D. Ocular movements
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.
How should a nurse listen to the breath sounds of a client?
- A. Ask the client to lie prone.
- B. Ask the client to breathe in and out through the nose.
- C. Hold the bell of the stethoscope lightly against the chest.
- D. Listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To best listen to breath sounds, the nurse should have the client sit, leaning slightly forward, with arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little deeper than usual, but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should hold the flat diaphragm end piece of the stethoscope firmly against the client's chest wall. It is crucial to listen for at least one full respiration in each location on the chest to assess breath sounds accurately. Side-to-side comparison is essential in breath sound assessment. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the correct procedure for listening to breath sounds.
When a 25-year-old client complains of chest congestion and cough after previously presenting with cold symptoms, what data should the nurse collect?
- A. Data related to follow-up care
- B. A complete health database
- C. Data related to the respiratory system
- D. Data related to the treatment for the cold
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this case, the nurse should collect data related to the respiratory system since the client is presenting with symptoms like chest congestion and cough, indicating a respiratory issue. Focusing on the respiratory system will help gather pertinent information to assess the current problem comprehensively. A complete health database involves a detailed health history and full physical examination, which is beyond the immediate scope of the presenting issue. Data related to follow-up care is premature as the primary focus should be on assessing the current respiratory symptoms. Data related to the treatment for the cold is not the priority at this stage, as understanding the underlying respiratory problem is crucial for appropriate intervention.
An adult client undergoes various diagnostic tests to determine the pumping ability of the heart. The nurse notes that the results of these tests indicate that the client's cardiac output is 5 L/min. The nurse makes which conclusion?
- A. The client has a low cardiac output.
- B. The client has a high cardiac output.
- C. The client has a normal cardiac output.
- D. The client will need a blood transfusion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A cardiac output of 5 L/min falls within the normal range for a resting adult, which typically ranges between 4 and 6 L/min. Cardiac output is calculated as the stroke volume (volume of blood in each systole) multiplied by the heart rate. Therefore, a cardiac output of 5 L/min is considered normal. Choices A and B are incorrect as they misinterpret the result as either low or high, which is not the case based on the provided information. Choice D is unrelated to the client's cardiac output and thus incorrect.
A healthcare provider is assisting with data collection on a client for the major risk factors associated with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which modifiable risk factor does the healthcare provider obtain data on from the client?
- A. Age
- B. Ethnicity
- C. Hypertension
- D. Genetic inheritance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypertension.' Risk factors for CAD are categorized as modifiable and unmodifiable. Unmodifiable risk factors include age, sex, ethnicity, genetic predisposition, and family history of heart disease. Modifiable risk factors include increased concentrations of serum lipids, hypertension, cigarette smoking, obesity, and level of physical activity. In this case, hypertension is a modifiable risk factor that the healthcare provider would obtain data on. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because age, ethnicity, and genetic inheritance are unmodifiable risk factors for CAD, not modifiable ones.