The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Heartburn
- C. Flatulence
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.
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The client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide (Neosar). The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions and advises the client to:
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily.
- C. Decrease sodium intake while taking the medication.
- D. Increase potassium intake while taking the medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a toxic effect. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help prevent this complication by promoting frequent urination, which reduces the concentration of the drug and its metabolites in the bladder. This dilution effect can help reduce the risk of bladder toxicity.
Before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, what is the most important laboratory test result for the nurse to check?
- A. Potassium level
- B. Creatinine level
- C. Cholesterol level
- D. Blood urea nitrogen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the potassium level before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, so it is crucial to assess the potassium level to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.
Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Triglyceride level
- C. Complete blood count
- D. White blood cell count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?
- A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
- B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
- C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
- D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with coronary artery disease complains of substernal chest pain. After checking the client's heart rate and blood pressure, a nurse administers nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. After 5 minutes, the client states, 'My chest still hurts.' Select the appropriate actions that the nurse should take.
- A. Call a code blue.
- B. Contact the registered nurse.
- C. Contact the client's family.
- D. Assess the client's pain level.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the registered nurse. When a client with coronary artery disease experiences chest pain and does not achieve relief after the initial administration of nitroglycerin, it is crucial to inform the registered nurse promptly. Following the usual guideline for nitroglycerin administration, the nurse may administer a second tablet after assessing the client's pain level. The nurse should continue to assess the client's pain and monitor vital signs before each dose administration. Calling a code blue is not warranted at this point, as the client's condition does not indicate an immediate life-threatening emergency. Contacting the client's family is not necessary unless requested by the client.