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The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Relief of heartburn
- C. Reduction of steatorrhea
- D. Absence of abdominal pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy used to aid digestion in clients with pancreatic insufficiency. One of the key goals of pancrelipase therapy is to reduce the amount of undigested fat in the stool, known as steatorrhea. Therefore, the nurse should evaluate the effectiveness of pancrelipase by looking for a reduction in steatorrhea, indicating improved digestion and absorption of fats.
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Prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin daily. Which of the following prescription changes does the nurse anticipate during therapy with prednisone?
- A. An additional dose of prednisone daily
- B. A decreased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
- C. An increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
- D. The addition of an oral hypoglycemic medication daily
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily, the nurse should anticipate an increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin. Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, can elevate blood glucose levels, requiring an increase in insulin dosage to maintain optimal blood sugar control.
A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:
- A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
- B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
- C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
- D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in the client's history?
- A. Neuralgia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Use of nitroglycerin
- D. Use of multivitamins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide and is contraindicated with the concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Using nitroglycerin together with Viagra can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse, making it unsafe to combine both medications.
The healthcare provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial-thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatment?
- A. The medication is an antibacterial.
- B. The medication will help heal the burn.
- C. The medication will permanently stain my skin.
- D. The medication should be applied directly to the wound.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Monitor for renal failure.
- B. Monitor psychosocial status.
- C. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
- D. Have heparin sodium available.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client receiving tissue plasminogen activator (alteplase) for an acute myocardial infarction is to monitor for signs of bleeding. Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication that can lead to hemorrhage as a complication. Therefore, closely monitoring the client for any signs of bleeding is essential to promptly address and manage this potential adverse effect.