Nokea
The client has just returned from electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and is very drowsy. What is the position of choice until the client regains full consciousness?
- A. Supine
- B. Fowlers
- C. Lateral
- D. High Fowlers
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lateral.' When a client is very drowsy or sedated, placing them in the lateral position is important to maintain an open airway and allow for drainage of secretions. This position helps prevent airway obstruction and aspiration.
Choice A, 'Supine,' is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for a drowsy client due to the risk of airway compromise.
Choice B, 'Fowlers,' is a semi-sitting position that is beneficial for clients with respiratory distress, but it may not be the best choice for a very drowsy individual.
Choice D, 'High Fowlers,' is a more upright sitting position, which again may not be suitable for a drowsy client as it does not facilitate airway patency as effectively as the lateral position.
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The client has been taking divalproex (Depakote) for the management of bipolar disorder. The nurse should give priority to monitoring which laboratory test?
- A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
- B. Serum glucose
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Serum electrolytes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Monitoring ALT levels is crucial when a patient is taking divalproex (Depakote) due to the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Elevated ALT levels indicate liver damage or disorders, which can be a side effect of Depakote. Serum glucose (choice B) is not the priority for monitoring in this case, as the medication does not directly affect glucose levels. Serum creatinine (choice C) is not the most relevant test to monitor for Depakote use; it primarily assesses kidney function. Serum electrolytes (choice D) are important but do not take precedence over monitoring ALT levels when a patient is on Depakote.
The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a closed chest wound. Which assessment finding is consistent with a flail chest?
- A. Biot's respirations
- B. Sucking sounds during respirations
- C. Paradoxical chest wall movement
- D. Hypotension and bradycardia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct assessment finding consistent with a flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration. Biot's respirations (Choice A) are a pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Sucking sounds during respirations (Choice B) may indicate air entering or leaving the chest cavity through a wound. Hypotension and bradycardia (Choice D) may be present due to other factors such as shock, but they are not specific to a flail chest.
The nurse is caring for a burn victim with a skin graft to the hand. The area is pale and mottled but has good capillary refill. What is the nurse's best action at this time?
- A. Warm the room
- B. Submerge the hand in warm water
- C. Order a K pad and apply to hand
- D. Have the client exercise the fingers to increase blood flow
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a burn victim with a skin graft to the hand, exhibiting pale and mottled skin but good capillary refill, is to warm the room. By warming the room, the nurse helps promote circulation and maintain a conducive environment for healing. Submerging the hand in warm water can pose a risk of injury or infection to the graft site. Ordering a K pad and applying it to the hand may not be necessary at this time and could potentially cause harm. Having the client exercise the fingers to increase blood flow is also not recommended as it may interfere with the healing process of the skin graft.
What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
- A. Shock
- B. Nephrotoxic drugs
- C. Enlarged prostate
- D. Diabetes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most common cause of acute renal failure is shock. In cases of shock, such as hypovolemic shock where there is low blood volume, the kidneys receive inadequate blood flow leading to acute renal failure. This can result in the kidneys starting to die within 20 minutes of low pressure. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is more commonly associated with this condition. An enlarged prostate can lead to urinary retention but is not the most common cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes, on the other hand, can cause chronic kidney disease over time but is not typically the primary cause of acute renal failure.
The nurse is teaching a community health class for cancer prevention and screening. Which individual has the highest risk for colon cancer?
- A. Client with irritable bowel syndrome
- B. Family history of colon polyps
- C. Client with cirrhosis of the liver
- D. History of colon surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A family history of colon polyps and/or colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Individuals with a family history are more likely to develop colon cancer due to genetic predisposition. While other factors like irritable bowel syndrome, cirrhosis of the liver, and history of colon surgery may contribute to an increased risk of colon cancer, having a family history of colon polyps is the highest risk factor. Irritable bowel syndrome does not directly increase the risk of colon cancer. Cirrhosis of the liver is associated with liver cancer rather than colon cancer. A history of colon surgery may reduce the risk of colon cancer in some cases by removing precancerous polyps.