Nokea
The client has paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. What are some causes of this? Select all that apply.
- A. Stress
- B. Hypotension
- C. Stimulants
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stimulants. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) is often caused by triggers like caffeine, nicotine, or illegal drugs that stimulate the heart's electrical system. Stress (A) can exacerbate PSVT but not directly cause it. Hypotension (B) and hypertension (D) are related to blood pressure and not primary causes of PSVT.
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The client is taking Flecainide for arrhythmias. What type of anti- arrhythmic medication is this:
- A. Class IB
- B. Class II
- C. Class IB
- D. Class IC
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Class IC. Flecainide belongs to Class IC anti-arrhythmic medications, which work by blocking sodium channels in the heart, slowing down the conduction of electrical impulses. This helps stabilize the heart's rhythm. Class IB medications (Choice A) work by blocking sodium channels as well, but they do not slow conduction as much as Class IC. Class II medications (Choice B) are beta blockers and do not directly affect sodium channels. Choice C is a duplicate of Choice A, which is incorrect.
A patient is suspected of having a decreased cardiac output due to dysrhythmias. Which of the following assessments would be included in a decreased cardiac output? Select all that apply
- A. Elevated jugular venous distention
- B. Polyuria
- C. Full and bounding pulses
- D. Diaphoresis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated jugular venous distention. This is a classic sign of decreased cardiac output as it indicates increased central venous pressure due to the heart's inability to effectively pump blood. This results in blood backing up into the jugular veins, causing them to appear distended.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
B: Polyuria is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output. Polyuria is excessive urination and is more commonly seen in conditions such as diabetes insipidus or diabetes mellitus.
C: Full and bounding pulses are not indicative of decreased cardiac output. In fact, decreased cardiac output often leads to weak and thready pulses due to reduced blood flow.
D: Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, can occur in various conditions but is not a specific sign of decreased cardiac output. It can be seen in response to pain, anxiety, or fever.
The nurse is instructing the client on the taking of aspirin. What would be part of that instruction?
- A. Take aspirin on an empty stomach.
- B. Take aspirin along with the daily dose of warfarin.
- C. Discard any aspirin that smells like vinegar.
- D. Aspirin can be taken by a hemophiliac.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because aspirin should not smell like vinegar, as it indicates degradation. Degraded aspirin may be less effective or harmful. Taking aspirin on an empty stomach (A) can cause irritation, and combining it with warfarin (B) increases the risk of bleeding. Hemophiliacs (D) should avoid aspirin due to its blood-thinning properties.
Which lifestyle changes should a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease consider?
- A. Smoking cessation
- B. Establishing a regular exercise routine
- C. Weight reduction
- D. All of the Above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the Above). Smoking cessation reduces cardiovascular risks. Regular exercise improves heart health. Weight reduction can lower blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Each lifestyle change targets a specific risk factor for coronary artery disease, making all the choices essential for managing the condition effectively. Therefore, selecting all the options is the most comprehensive approach to address the client's coronary artery disease.
If a hypertensive client with asthma takes the maximal dose of his diuretic and his blood pressure still isn't controlled, the nurse understands the next step in controlling his hypertension would be to:
- A. Add enalapril, an ACE inhibitor
- B. Change him to Metoprolol, a beta blocker
- C. Add another diuretic
- D. Increase the drug dosage above recommended dosing levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. ACE inhibitors like enalapril are recommended as second-line therapy for hypertension.
2. ACE inhibitors are effective in managing hypertension in patients with asthma.
3. Adding another diuretic may lead to electrolyte imbalances.
4. Beta blockers like Metoprolol may worsen asthma symptoms.
5. Increasing drug dosage above recommended levels can be harmful and ineffective.
Summary:
Adding enalapril is the best choice as it is effective, safe in asthma, and avoids potential adverse effects of other options like beta blockers or excessive diuretics.