The client is a type II DM patient. The client asks the nurse what is the primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A. there is no insulin available for the state of hyperglycemia
- B. the type II diabetic has no protein of fat reserves
- C. there is no sufficient insulin to prevent the breakdown of protein and fatty acid for metabolic needs
- D. there is insufficient serum glucose concentrations
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Choice C (Correct answer):
- In type II DM, there is some insulin present but it is insufficient to meet the body's needs.
- Without sufficient insulin, the body turns to breaking down protein and fatty acids for energy.
- This leads to the formation of ketones, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
- Therefore, the primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop DKA is due to insufficient insulin to prevent the breakdown of protein and fatty acids for metabolic needs.
Summary of other choices:
- Choice A is incorrect because there is some insulin available in type II DM, though it may be insufficient.
- Choice B is incorrect as type II diabetics do have fat and protein reserves.
- Choice D is incorrect as insufficient serum glucose concentrations do not directly relate to the development of DKA in type II DM.
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The nurse is instructing a client with newly diagnosed hypoparathyroidism about the regimen used to treat this disorder. The nurse should state that the physician probably will prescribe daily supplements of calcium and:
- A. Folic acid
- B. Potassium
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Iron
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin D. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone leading to low calcium levels. Vitamin D helps in the absorption of calcium from the intestines, thus aiding in maintaining normal calcium levels. It is often prescribed along with calcium supplements to support bone health and prevent complications. Folic acid (A) is not directly related to the treatment of hypoparathyroidism. Potassium (B) is not typically prescribed for this condition and can be harmful in high levels. Iron (D) is not directly involved in calcium metabolism and is not part of the standard treatment regimen for hypoparathyroidism.
When caring for Mr. Reyes, the nurse should assess for
- A. Decreased carotid pulses
- B. Altered level of consciousness
- C. Bleeding from oral cavity
- D. Absence of deep tendon-reflexes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered level of consciousness. This is crucial as it can indicate various underlying health issues affecting Mr. Reyes. Assessing for this helps in detecting potential neurological, metabolic, or cardiac issues.
A: Decreased carotid pulses - While important, it is not as critical as altered level of consciousness in this scenario.
C: Bleeding from oral cavity - This is important to address but does not take priority over assessing Mr. Reyes' level of consciousness.
D: Absence of deep tendon-reflexes - This is more specific to neurological assessments and may not be as urgent as assessing his level of consciousness.
A post-TURP patient experiences dribbling following removal of his catheter. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Have him restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL/day
- B. Teach him to perform Kegel’s exercises 10 to 20 times per hour
- C. Reinsert the Foley catheter until he regains urinary control
- D. Reassure him that incontinence never lasts more than a few days
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach him to perform Kegel's exercises 10 to 20 times per hour. This is the appropriate action because Kegel's exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can improve urinary control and reduce dribbling post-TURP. Restricting fluid intake (A) is not necessary and may lead to dehydration. Reinserting the Foley catheter (C) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Reassuring the patient (D) without providing any intervention is not addressing the issue. Teaching Kegel's exercises is the most effective and non-invasive approach to manage post-TURP dribbling.
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
- A. 30-year old woman taking contraceptives
- B. 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant
- C. 40-year old woman with three children
- D. 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. The risk of ovarian cancer increases with age and nulliparity (never having been pregnant) is a significant risk factor. The older a woman gets without having been pregnant, the higher her risk of developing ovarian cancer. The other choices do not have as high of a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Choice A, a 30-year old woman taking contraceptives, actually reduces the risk of ovarian cancer. Choice C, a 40-year old woman with three children, and choice D, a 36-year old woman who had her first child at age 22, both have lower risk factors compared to choice B.
Once admitted to hospital the physician indicates that Mr. Gubatan is a paraplegic. The family asks the nurse what that means. The nurse explains that:
- A. Upper extremities are paralyzed
- B. Both lower and upper extremities are
- C. Lower extremities are paralyzed paralyzed
- D. One side of the body is paralyzed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. Paraplegia is a condition where both lower extremities are paralyzed.
2. The prefix "para-" means alongside or beside, indicating that both legs are affected.
3. The nurse would explain to the family that Mr. Gubatan has paralysis in his lower extremities only.
4. This aligns with the medical definition of paraplegia.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. Upper extremities being paralyzed is not indicative of paraplegia, as paraplegia specifically refers to lower extremity paralysis.
B. Both lower and upper extremities being paralyzed is suggestive of quadriplegia, not paraplegia.
D. One side of the body being paralyzed describes hemiplegia, not paraplegia.