The client is admitted to the ED with tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypotension. The client has been taking theophylline for treatment of asthma and erythromycin for an upper respiratory tract infection. Which conclusion and action taken by the nurse is correct?
- A. The client is having an asthma attack; the nurse requests an order for albuterol.
- B. The client is experiencing septicemia; the nurse requests an order for blood cultures.
- C. The client has theophylline toxicity; the nurse requests an order for a serum theophylline level.
- D. The client is allergic to erythromycin; the nurse requests an order for diphenhydramine.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: Symptoms of an asthma attack would include wheezing and other signs of air hunger. B: Additional signs would need to be present to suspect septicemia, such as an elevated temperature and skin flushing. C: Tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypotension are signs of theophylline (Theo-Dur) toxicity. These occur because macrolide antibiotics such as erythromycin inhibit the metabolism of theophylline. Obtaining an order for a theophylline level will expedite the client's treatment. D: Symptoms could suggest an allergic reaction, but epinephrine would be ordered, not diphenhydramine.
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The 12-year-old weighing 50 kg is hospitalized with bacterial pneumonia and an upper respiratory tract infection. The nurse is reviewing the child's serum laboratory report illustrated. Based on the findings, which HCP order is most important for the nurse to question?
- A. Amikacin sulfate 375 mg IVPB q12h
- B. Guaifenesin 50-100 mg q4h prn for cough
- C. Dextrose 5% in 0.25 NaCl with 20 mEq/L KCl at 90 mL/hr
- D. Acetaminophen 325-650 mg q4-6h prn, not to exceed 3000 mg/24 hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: Amikacin (Amikin) is an aminoglycoside, which is nephrotoxic and should be questioned. The serum creatinine and BUN levels are elevated, suggesting decreased renal function. B: Guaifenesin (Robitussin) is used for cough. The dose is within the range for a child of 12 years. C: The serum osmolality is high, suggesting dehydration, and the potassium is low. D5 in 0.25 NaCl with 20 mEq/L at 90 mL/hr will treat the dehydration and hypokalemia. D: The acetaminophen (Tylenol) dose is within parameters, but it is concerning with the decreased renal function. Because acetaminophen is prn and amikacin is timed, the amikacin is more important to question.
In teaching bleeding precautions to a client with leukemia, the PN should include which of the following instructions?
- A. Use a soft toothbrush
- B. Use dental floss daily
- C. Hold pressure on any scrapes for 1-2 minutes
- D. Use a triple-edged razor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A soft toothbrush minimizes gum bleeding in leukemia clients with low platelets. Dental floss and razors increase bleeding risk, and pressure should be held for 5-10 minutes.
The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ___ units for administration.
- A. 12
- B. 35
- C. 16
- D. 9
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To find the answer, you must convert 176 pounds to kilograms. 2.2 pounds = 1 kg. You must divide 176 by 2.2, which equals 80 kg. The client is 80 kg, and they should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram they weigh, so 80 × 0.2 = 16 units.
The nurse applies a fentanyl transdermal patch to the client for the first time. Shortly after application, the client is experiencing pain. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
- A. Remove the transdermal patch and apply a new one.
- B. Administer a short-acting opioid analgesic medication.
- C. Rub the transdermal patch to enhance drug absorption.
- D. Call the HCP to request a higher-dosed fentanyl patch.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Removing the patch is unnecessary; effective analgesia may take 12 to 24 hours. B: The nurse should administer a short-acting opioid analgesic. When the first fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal patch is applied, effective analgesia may take 12 to 24 hours because absorption is slow. C: Transdermal patches should not be rubbed to enhance absorption; it can cause the delivery of the medication to fluctuate. D: It is premature to request a higher dose of fentanyl.
The client calls a clinic 2 weeks after taking oral carbidopa-levodopa, stating that the medication has been ineffective in controlling the symptoms of PD. What nursing action is most important?
- A. Review how to correctly take the carbidopa-levodopa.
- B. Contact the HCP to address a change in the dose.
- C. Reinforce that it may take 1 to 2 months to see effects.
- D. Reinforce eating a diet high in protein and vitamin B6.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: Reviewing the method for taking carbidopa-levodopa, including foods to avoid, may be important, but option C is most important. More information is needed to determine whether the client is taking it correctly. B: A dosage change is unnecessary because it has been only two weeks since the client started carbidopa-levodopa. C: With oral administration of carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet), it usually takes 1 to 2 months before an effect is noted, although in some cases it may require up to 6 months. D: A high-protein diet can slow or prevent absorption of carbidopa-levodopa. Vitamin B6 increases the action of decarboxylases that destroy levodopa in the body's periphery, reducing the effects of carbidopa-levodopa. Foods high in pyridoxine should be avoided.
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