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During the primary survey of a patient with severe leg trauma, the nurse observes that the patient’s left pedal pulse is absent and the leg is swollen. Which action will the nurse take next?
- A. Send blood to the lab for a complete blood count.
- B. Assess further for a cause of the decreased circulation.
- C. Finish the airway, breathing, circulation, and disability survey.
- D. Start normal saline fluid infusion with a large-bore IV line.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess further for a cause of the decreased circulation. The nurse should prioritize assessing the cause of the absent left pedal pulse and leg swelling to address the severe leg trauma effectively. This step involves identifying potential vascular compromise or compartment syndrome, which are critical conditions requiring immediate intervention. Sending blood for a complete blood count (A) is not the priority in this situation. Finishing the primary survey (C) may delay addressing the circulation issue. Starting normal saline infusion (D) without addressing the circulation problem first could potentially worsen the condition. Therefore, assessing further for the cause of decreased circulation is the most appropriate next step to ensure timely and appropriate management of the patient's condition.
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An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
- A. Antacids.
- B. Tricyclic antidepressants.
- C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
- D. Insulin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tricyclic antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention, especially in the elderly. Morphine sulfate can also contribute to urinary retention. Antacids (A) and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (C) are not known to cause urinary retention. Insulin (D) does not pose a risk for urinary retention in this scenario.
A critically ill patient experiences stress and anxiety from many factors. Treatment of the patient focuses on reducing stressors and providing supportive care such as nutrition, oxygenation, pain management, control of anxiety, and specific care of the illness or injury. What is the best rationale for these interventions?
- A. Helps to support the patients immune system
- B. Part of good nursing care
- C. Mandated by hospital policy
- D. Reassures the patient and family
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helps to support the patient's immune system. Providing supportive care such as nutrition, oxygenation, pain management, and anxiety control can help reduce stress, which in turn supports the immune system. Stress weakens the immune system, making the patient more vulnerable to infections and complications. By addressing stress and anxiety through supportive care, the patient's immune system is better able to function optimally, aiding in the recovery process.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because:
B: Part of good nursing care - While supportive care is indeed part of good nursing care, the key rationale for these interventions in a critically ill patient is to support the immune system, not just to provide good nursing care.
C: Mandated by hospital policy - Hospital policies may dictate certain aspects of care, but the primary goal of these interventions is to support the patient's immune system, not just to comply with hospital policies.
D: Reassures the patient and family - While providing reass
The transplant clinic coordinator is evaluating relatives of a patient with end-stage renal disease, whose blood type is A positive, for suitability as aa bliirvb.icnogm /dteostn or for kidney transplantation. Which family member best qualifies for evaluation?
- A. A 65-year-old brother with a history of hypertension; b lood type A positive
- B. A 35-year-old female with a history of food allergies; blood type O negative
- C. A 14-year-old son, otherwise healthy with no history; blood type B negative
- D. A 70-year-old mother, with a history of sinus infection s; blood type A positive
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the 70-year-old mother with blood type A positive. This choice is the best candidate for evaluation due to her blood type matching the patient's (A positive) for kidney transplantation. Age and medical history are also crucial factors in determining suitability. The 65-year-old brother (choice A) has hypertension, a significant risk factor. The 35-year-old female (choice B) with food allergies may have potential complications. The 14-year-old son (choice C) is underage and might not be a suitable donor due to age and the potential impact on his growth and development. In summary, choice D aligns with the matching blood type and age, making the mother the most suitable candidate for evaluation.
The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient in septic shock with a pulmonary artery catheter. Which hemodynamic value indicates an appropriate response to therapy aimed at enhancing oxygen delivery to the organs and tissues?
- A. Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L
- B. Cardiac output of 2.5 L/min
- C. Mixed venous (SvO ) of 40%
- D. Cardiac index of 1.5 L/min/m2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mixed venous (SvO2) of 40%. In septic shock, improving oxygen delivery to tissues is vital. SvO2 reflects the balance between oxygen delivery and consumption. A value of 40% indicates adequate oxygen delivery to tissues.
A: Arterial lactate level of 1.0 mEq/L - Although a low lactate level is good, it does not directly indicate improved oxygen delivery.
B: Cardiac output of 2.5 L/min - Cardiac output should ideally increase to improve oxygen delivery, so 2.5 L/min is low for a 70-kg patient.
D: Cardiac index of 1.5 L/min/m2 - Cardiac index is cardiac output adjusted for body surface area. 1.5 L/min/m2 is low and indicates inadequate cardiac function for a patient in septic shock.
The emergency department (ED) triage nurse is assessing four victims involved in a motor vehicle collision. Which patient has the highest priority for treatment?
- A. A patient with no pedal pulses.
- B. A patient with an open femur fracture.
- C. A patient with bleeding facial lacerations.
- D. A patient with paradoxical chest movements.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A patient with paradoxical chest movements. This indicates flail chest, a life-threatening condition where a segment of the chest wall moves independently from the rest.
1. Flail chest can lead to respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure.
2. Immediate intervention is needed to stabilize the chest wall and support breathing.
3. Without prompt treatment, the patient can develop hypoxia and potentially progress to cardiac arrest.
Summary:
- Choice A: No pedal pulses may indicate vascular compromise but does not pose an immediate threat to life.
- Choice B: Open femur fracture requires urgent treatment but does not have the same immediate life-threatening implications as flail chest.
- Choice C: Bleeding facial lacerations can be managed after addressing more critical injuries like flail chest.