Nokea
The client is being evaluated for hypothyroidism. During assessment, the nurse should stay alert for:
- A. exophthalmos and conjunctival redness
- B. flushed, warm, moist skin
- C. systolic murmur at the left sternal border
- D. decreased body temperature and cold intolerance
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased body temperature and cold intolerance, because these are classic signs of hypothyroidism due to decreased thyroid hormone levels. The body's metabolism slows down, leading to a lower core body temperature and reduced ability to tolerate cold. Exophthalmos and conjunctival redness (choice A) are associated with hyperthyroidism. Flushed, warm, moist skin (choice B) is indicative of hyperthyroidism as well, due to increased metabolic rate. A systolic murmur at the left sternal border (choice C) is not a common finding in hypothyroidism.
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A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
- A. Esophagostomy
- B. Thymectomy
- C. Myomectomy
- D. Spleenectomy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms.
Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.
A 34 year old client is diagnosed with AIDS. His pharmacologic management includes zidovudine (AZT). During a home visit, the client states, “I don’t understand how this medication works. Will it stop the infection?” What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. The medication helps to slow the disease process, but it won’t cure or stop it totally
- B. The medication blocks reverse transcriptase, the enzyme required fro HIV replication
- C. Don’t you know? There aren’t medication to stop or cure HIV
- D. No. it won’t stop the infection. In fact, sometimes the HIV can become immune to the drug itself
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should explain that zidovudine (AZT) works by blocking reverse transcriptase, the enzyme necessary for HIV replication. This is the key mechanism of action for AZT in managing HIV.
Choice A is incorrect because it provides a partial truth - it does slow the disease process but does not provide the mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as it provides incorrect information that there are no medications to stop or cure HIV, which is not true. Choice D is incorrect as it provides misleading information about the drug becoming immune to HIV, which is not the primary concern in this context.
A nurse is developing a care plan for a patient with a pelvic fracture on bed rest. Which goal statement is realistic for the nurse to assign to this patient?
- A. Patient will increase activity level this shift.
- B. Patient will turn side to back to side with assistance every 2 hours.
- C. Patient will use the walker correctly to ambulate to the bathroom as needed.
- D. Patient will use a sliding board correctly to transfer to the bedside commode as needed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it is a realistic goal for a patient with a pelvic fracture on bed rest. The patient needs to use a walker correctly to ambulate safely to the bathroom, which promotes mobility and independence while ensuring safety. This goal is specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound.
Choice A is incorrect because increasing activity level may not be safe or feasible for a patient with a pelvic fracture. Choice B is incorrect as turning every 2 hours may not be necessary or practical for this patient. Choice D is incorrect as using a sliding board may not be appropriate or necessary for someone with a pelvic fracture.
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
- A. Etiology
- B. Nursing diagnosis
- C. Collaborative problem
- D. Defining characteristic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise this part of the diagnostic statement because impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems are issues that require both medical and nursing interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses are within the scope of nursing practice. The etiology identifies the cause of the problem (tibial fracture), the nursing diagnosis states the problem (impaired physical mobility), and the defining characteristic is the evidence that supports the diagnosis (inability to ambulate). Therefore, the nurse should revise the part stating collaborative problem as it does not align with the nature of the issue presented in the scenario.
The neurologist tests the 4th and 6th cranial nerves together by having a patient do which of the following?
- A. Turn his head to the right and left
- B. Say “ahhh”
- C. Identify whispering in his ears
- D. Follow his finger with his eyes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because testing the 4th (trochlear) and 6th (abducens) cranial nerves involves assessing eye movements. The trochlear nerve controls downward and inward eye movement, while the abducens nerve controls lateral eye movement. Asking the patient to follow the finger with their eyes tests the function of both nerves simultaneously. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically target the 4th and 6th cranial nerves, making them incorrect options.