Nokea
The client is diagnosed with a rectovaginal fistula which is to be managed medically. Which information should the nurse teach the client prior to discharge?
- A. Douche with normal saline.
- B. Eat a low-residue diet.
- C. Keep ice packs to the area.
- D. Use an abdominal binder.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A low-residue diet reduces fecal output, aiding healing of a rectovaginal fistula. Douching risks infection, ice packs are ineffective, and binders are unrelated.
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Which staff nurse is best suited to care for a client with a radioactive implant?
- A. A male nurse with oncology nursing experience
- B. A female nurse who has had a hysterectomy
- C. A male nurse whose mother died of cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oncology experience equips the nurse to safely manage a client with a radioactive implant, regardless of gender or personal history.
To accurately determine the dosage of antineoplastic drugs, which information is essential to obtain from the client's chart?
- A. Urine output for the past 24 hours
- B. Body weight and height
- C. Date of surgery
- D. Drug allergies
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Body weight and height are used to calculate body surface area, which determines accurate dosing of antineoplastic drugs.
On the basis of this client's age, which statement by the nurse is the best explanation for the client's discomfort?
- A. The pelvic muscles are more sensitive to pressure after menopause.
- B. The clitoris is unable to respond to sexual foreplay as women age.
- C. The vagina hypertrophies if intercourse is infrequent.
- D. The mucus-producing glands decrease with aging.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Postmenopausal vaginal dryness due to decreased mucus production is a common cause of painful intercourse in older women.
The female client has a mother who died from ovarian cancer and a sister diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Which recommendations should the nurse make regarding early detection of ovarian cancer?
- A. The client should consider having a prophylactic bilateral oophorectomy.
- B. The client should have a transvaginal ultrasound and a CA-125 laboratory test every six (6) months.
- C. The client should have yearly magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans.
- D. The client should have a biannual gynecological examination with flexible sigmoidoscopy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High familial risk warrants transvaginal ultrasound and CA-125 every 6 months for early detection. Prophylactic oophorectomy is a personal choice, MRI is not standard, and sigmoidoscopy is unrelated.
When the client asks how this condition will affect him sexually, which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. It most likely will have little effect on your masculinity.
- B. It means that you will probably be impotent.
- C. You may notice that your breasts will enlarge later.
- D. Your sex drive will not be like that of other boys.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An undescended testicle, if corrected, typically has minimal impact on sexual function or masculinity, especially if addressed early.