Nokea
For the past 6 months, several nurses are resigning. Some have verbalized in the exit interview that there are not happy anymore. Which of the following descriptions manifest BEST, a nurse who has job satisfaction?
- A. Competitive, self-centered, euphoric.
- B. Empowered, enthusiastic, ethical.
- C. Loner, egoistic, reactive.
- D. Outgoing, sensitive, competitive.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an empowered nurse feels in control and valued, leading to job satisfaction. Enthusiasm shows motivation and engagement with their work. Being ethical indicates a commitment to moral principles, contributing to a sense of fulfillment.
Choice A is incorrect as competitiveness and self-centeredness do not necessarily equate to job satisfaction. Euphoria may not be a sustainable indicator of satisfaction.
Choice C is incorrect because being a loner and egoistic are not traits associated with job satisfaction. Reactivity may suggest a lack of control or frustration.
Choice D is incorrect as being outgoing and competitive might not directly translate to job satisfaction. Sensitivity alone does not guarantee satisfaction in the workplace.
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A patient with suspected community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is empirically started on antibiotic therapy pending culture results. Which of the following antibiotic regimens provides appropriate coverage for typical bacterial pathogens commonly implicated in CAP?
- A. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
- B. Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam
- C. Ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin
- D. Clindamycin and cefepime
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Ceftriaxone covers Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common pathogen in CAP, while azithromycin covers atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma pneumoniae. Vancomycin and piperacillin/tazobactam (choice B) are not first-line treatments for CAP. Ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin (choice C) cover some pathogens but not as comprehensively as ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Clindamycin and cefepime (choice D) do not provide adequate coverage for typical CAP pathogens.
A patient is prescribed a statin medication for lipid-lowering therapy. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
- A. Muscle pain or weakness
- B. Dry cough
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain or weakness. Statins can cause muscle-related side effects, including rhabdomyolysis, a severe condition that can lead to muscle pain and weakness. Monitoring for these symptoms is crucial to prevent serious complications.
B: Dry cough is not a common side effect of statins.
C: Hypertension is not directly associated with statin use.
D: Hyperkalemia is not a typical adverse effect of statins.
The nurse is aware that which occurrence in the patient 's health history suggests the diagnosis of GBS?
- A. viral illness few weeks before
- B. encephalitis
- C. severe bacterial infection
- D. meningitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.
Ms. Nena is specifically assigned to talk individually with community leaders like the primary grade teacher and the barangay official in charge of the health committee. Which data collection method will the nurse use?
- A. Key informant interview
- B. Participant observer
- C. Community mapping
- D. Social survey
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Key informant interview. Ms. Nena will use this method to gather in-depth information from knowledgeable individuals within the community. This approach allows her to gain insights and perspectives from key stakeholders, such as the primary grade teacher and barangay official, who have first-hand knowledge and experience. Key informant interviews are particularly useful for obtaining specific details, opinions, and insights that may not be easily accessible through other methods. In contrast, participant observer involves direct participation in community activities, community mapping focuses on spatial data collection, and social survey typically involves collecting data from a larger sample size rather than individual key informants.
Which of the following situations will the nurse consider as risks factors for complicated grief?
- A. Childbirth, marriage and divorce
- B. Death of a spouse, child, death by suicide
- C. Inadequate perception of the grieving process
- D. Inadequate support and old age
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the death of a spouse, child, or death by suicide are all significant losses that can lead to complicated grief due to the intensity of emotions and the disruption of daily life. These experiences can result in prolonged and severe grieving processes that may require professional intervention.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Childbirth, marriage, and divorce are not typically considered risk factors for complicated grief as they are more commonly associated with expected life events that may involve grief but not necessarily lead to complicated grief.
C: Inadequate perception of the grieving process may contribute to difficulties in coping with grief but is not a direct risk factor for complicated grief.
D: While inadequate support can impact the grieving process, and old age may present unique challenges, they are not specific risk factors for complicated grief compared to the profound loss experienced in choice B.