Nokea
The client is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which health-care provider order should the nurse anticipate in treating this condition?
- A. Subcutaneous iron dextran.
- B. Intramuscular vitamin B12.
- C. Intravenous folic acid.
- D. Oral thiamine medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pernicious anemia results from B12 deficiency; IM B12 is standard treatment due to absorption issues. Iron, folic acid, or thiamine do not address the primary cause.
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The nurse is administering a topical ointment to the client's rash on the right leg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Don nonsterile gloves.
- B. Cleanse the client's right leg.
- C. Check the client's armband.
- D. Wash the hands for 15 seconds.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hand washing is the first step to prevent infection, per aseptic technique. Gloves, cleansing, or armband checks follow.
The nurse is providing education for a client with newly diagnosed tuberculosis. Which statement should be included in the information that is given to the client?
- A. Isolate yourself from others until you are finished taking your medication.'
- B. Follow up with your primary care provider in 3 months.'
- C. Continue to take your medications even when you are feeling fine.'
- D. Continue to get yearly tuberculin skin tests.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most important piece of information the tuberculosis client needs is to understand the importance of medication compliance, even if no longer experiencing symptoms. Clients are most infectious early in the course of therapy. The numbers of acid-fast bacilli are greatly reduced as early as 2 weeks after therapy begins.
The charge nurse is observing the new graduate administering a fentanyl (Duragesic) patch to a client diagnosed with cancer. Which action by the new graduate requires intervention by the charge nurse?
- A. The new graduate documents the date and time on the patch.
- B. The new graduate removes the patch 24 hours after it is placed on the client.
- C. The new graduate rotates the application site on the client's body.
- D. The new graduate checks the client's name band and date of birth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fentanyl patches last 72 hours; removing at 24 hours is incorrect and requires intervention. Dating, rotating sites, and ID checks are correct.
A 2-year-old child who weighs 33 pounds is to receive a total daily dose of 25 mg/kg of a medication. It is to be administered in three evenly divided doses. The label reads 150 mg/mL. How many milliliters will be injected per dose?
- A. 0.5 mL
- B. 0.83 mL
- C. 3.75 mL
- D. 155 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: First, convert 33 pounds to kilograms: 33 ÷ 2.2 = 15 kg. Then, calculate daily dose: 15 × 25 = 375 mg. Divide by 3 doses: 375 ÷ 3 = 125 mg/dose. Finally, calculate volume: 125 ÷ 150 = 0.83 mL.
The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is scheduled for bowel resection in the morning. Which medication should the nurse question administering to the client?
- A. Ticlopidine (Ticlid), a platelet aggregate inhibitor.
- B. Ticarcillin (Timentin), an extended-spectrum antibiotic.
- C. Pioglitazone (Actos), a thiazolidinedione.
- D. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax), a cathartic laxative.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ticlopidine increases bleeding risk, contraindicated pre-surgery. Antibiotics, antidiabetics, or laxatives are appropriate or less risky.