The client is experiencing pain due to cancer treatment- The client tells the nurse, “Methadone has always worked well for me in the past.” Which effects of methadone should the nurse consider when administering methadone?
- A. Has a long half-life and high level of potency
- B. May cause an increase in BP and confusion
- C. Causes severe allergic reactions and liver failure
- D. Has active metabolites, but it is well tolerated
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: bg
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Which sign/symptom will the nurse expect to assess in the client diagnosed with a vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis?
- A. Lordosis.
- B. Epistaxis.
- C. Hematuria.
- D. Petechiae.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vaso-occlusive crisis causes ischemia; hematuria (C) results from renal infarction. Lordosis (A) is spinal, epistaxis (B) is bleeding, and petechiae (D) indicate thrombocytopenia.
The client diagnosed with leukemia is scheduled for bone marrow transplantation. Which interventions should be implemented to prepare the client for this procedure? Select all that apply.
- A. Administer high-dose chemotherapy.
- B. Teach the client about autologous transfusions.
- C. Have the family members' HLA typed.
- D. Monitor the complete blood cell count daily.
- E. Provide central line care per protocol.
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: High-dose chemotherapy (A) ablates marrow, HLA typing (C) identifies donors, CBC monitoring (D) tracks counts, and central line care (E) prevents infection. Autologous transfusions (B) are irrelevant (donor marrow used).
The client is diagnosed with severe iron-deficiency anemia. Which statement is the scientific rationale regarding oral replacement therapy?
- A. Iron supplements are well tolerated without side effects.
- B. There is no benefit from oral preparations; the best route is IV.
- C. Oral iron preparations cause diarrhea if not taken with food.
- D. Very little of the iron supplement will be absorbed by the body.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oral iron has low absorption (D), requiring high doses. Side effects (A) include GI upset, IV (B) is for severe cases, and diarrhea (C) is not primary (constipation is common).
The nurse is transcribing the HCP’s order for an iron supplement on the MAR. At which time should the nurse schedule the daily dose?
- A. 900
- B. 1000
- C. 1200
- D. 1630
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Iron supplements are best taken in the morning (0900, A) with food to reduce GI upset and enhance absorption. Later times (B, C, D) are less optimal.
The nurse assesses that the client with hemolytic anemia has weakness, fatigue, malaise, and skin and mucous membrane pallor. Which finding should the nurse also associate with hemolytic anemia?
- A. Scleral jaundice
- B. A smooth, red tongue
- C. A craving for ice to chew
- D. A poor intake of fresh vegetables
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. Jaundice occurs in hemolytic anemia from the shortened life span of the RBC and the breakdown of Hgb. About 80% of heme is converted to bilirubin, conjugated in the liver, and excreted in the bile. The increased bilirubin in the blood causes the jaundice. B. A smooth, red tongue is seen with iron-deficiency anemia. C. A craving for ice is seen with iron-deficiency anemia. D. Folate deficiency occurs in people who rarely eat fresh vegetables.
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