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The client is prescribed a prick epicutaneous test to determine the cause of hypersensitivity reactions. Which result indicates the client is hypersensitive to the allergen?
- A. The client complains of shortness of breath.
- B. The skin is dry, intact, and without redness.
- C. The pricked blood tests positive for allergens.
- D. A pruritic wheal and erythema occur.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A pruritic wheal and erythema at the prick site indicate a positive allergic response. Shortness of breath is systemic, dry skin is negative, and blood tests are separate.
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The client diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome is admitted to the rehabilitation unit after 23 days in the acute care hospital. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Refer the client to the physical therapist.
- B. Include the speech therapist in the team.
- C. Request a social worker consult.
- D. Implement a regimen to address pain control.
- E. Refer the client to the Guillain-Barré Syndrome Foundation.
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: Physical therapy, social worker consult, pain control, and foundation referral address mobility, psychosocial needs, comfort, and education. Speech therapy is unnecessary without communication issues.
The client diagnosed with RA who has been prescribed etanercept, a tumor necrosis factor alpha inhibitor, shows marked improvement. Which instruction regarding the use of this medication should the nurse teach?
- A. Explain the medication loses its efficacy after a few months.
- B. Continue to have checkups and laboratory work while taking the medication.
- C. Have yearly magnetic resonance imaging to follow the progress.
- D. Discuss the drug is taken for three (3) weeks and then stopped for a week.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Regular checkups and lab work monitor for etanercept side effects (e.g., infection). Efficacy persists, MRI is not routine, and cycling is incorrect.
The client is diagnosed with Multi Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS). Which is the most appropriate goal for the nurse to write when planning the client's care?
- A. The client will maintain vital signs within normal limits during the next 24 hours.
- B. The client's urine output will be maintained to achieve output of 600 mL in the next 24 hours.
- C. The client will have elevated ALT, AST, and GGT liver enzymes within the next 24 hours.
- D. The client's blood glucose reading will be 200 to 240 mg/dL for the next 24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Maintaining normal vital signs is a broad, achievable goal in MODS. Urine output is specific, elevated enzymes are undesirable, and high glucose is not a goal.
The client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the emergency department with a sudden exacerbation of motor weakness. Which assessment data indicate the client is experiencing a cholinergic crisis?
- A. The serum assay of circulating acetylcholine receptor antibodies is increased.
- B. The client's symptoms improve when administering a cholinesterase inhibitor.
- C. The client's blood pressure, pulse, and respirations improve after IV fluid.
- D. The Tensilon test does not show improvement in the client's muscle strength.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cholinergic crisis (overdose of cholinesterase inhibitors) shows no improvement with Tensilon, unlike myasthenic crisis. Antibody levels, symptom improvement, and vital signs are not specific.
The nurse is preparing to administer morning medications. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. The pain medication to a client diagnosed with RA.
- B. The diuretic medication to a client diagnosed with SLE.
- C. The steroid to a client diagnosed with polymyositis.
- D. The appetite stimulant to a client diagnosed with OA.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Steroids for polymyositis address inflammation and muscle weakness, a priority in autoimmune disease. Pain, diuresis, and appetite are less urgent.