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The client is prescribed medications on hospital admission. Four days later the client's serum creatinine level, which was normal at admission, is now 3.7 mg/dL. The nurse should contact the HCP regarding a dosage change for which medication?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Insulin glargine
- C. Diltiazem
- D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: The nurse should contact the HCP regarding ceftriaxone (Rocephin). Ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic, is 33% to 67% excreted in the urine unchanged. Dosage reduction or increased dosing interval is recommended in renal insufficiency because ceftriaxone is nephrotoxic and can further damage the kidneys. B: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is partially metabolized at the site of injection to active insulin metabolites and partially metabolized by the liver, the spleen, the kidney, and muscle tissue; no dose reduction is necessary unless serum glucose levels fluctuate. C: Diltiazem (Cardizem) is mostly metabolized by the liver; no dose reduction is necessary. D: Furosemide (Lasix) is 30% to 40% metabolized by the liver with some nonhepatic metabolism and renal excretion as unchanged medication; no dose reduction is necessary.
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The home care nurse is observing the child with asthma self-administer a dose of albuterol via a metered-dose inhaler with a spacer. Within a short time, the child begins to wheeze loudly. What should the nurse do?
- A. Reassure the parent that this usually only occurs with the initial dose.
- B. Notify the HCP; wheezing may indicate paradoxical bronchospasms.
- C. Consult with the HCP to have the child's medication dosage increased.
- D. Reassess the technique; eye contact with albuterol can cause wheezing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Reassuring the parent is an inappropriate action; the wheezing is not a normal reaction. There is no indication that this is an initial dose. B: The client's wheezing suggests paradoxical bronchospasms, which can occur with excessive use of adrenergic bronchodilators such as albuterol (Proventil). The medication should be withheld and the HCP notified. C: A paradoxical bronchospasm can occur from excessive use, so the dosage should not be increased. D: Contact with the eyes can cause eye irritation, not wheezing.
The initial treatment regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol is prescribed for the adolescent who has a positive tuberculin skin test. The client confides that she thinks she may be pregnant and asks if she should be taking these medications. Which rationale should be the basis for the nurse's response?
- A. These drugs cross the placental barrier, and treatment should be withheld until the postpartum period.
- B. The medications should be taken, but the diagnosis is an indication for termination of the pregnancy.
- C. The medications should be postponed because the risk for hepatitis is greatly increased in the intrapartum period.
- D. The medications should be taken; untreated TB represents a far greater hazard to the pregnant woman and her fetus.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The medications do not cross the placental barrier, so treatment should not be withheld. B: Administering antituberculosis medications would not be an indication for termination of pregnancy because the medications are safe during pregnancy. C: The risk of hepatitis is slightly increased with the use of antituberculosis medications in pregnant women; however, the benefits of treatment strongly outweigh postponement of treatment. D: Infants born to women with untreated TB may be of lower birth weight, but rarely would the infant acquire congenital TB. Isoniazid (Nydrazid), rifampin (Rifadin), and ethambutol (Myambutol) are all considered safe for use in pregnancy.
The child weighing 20 kg is to receive ceftriaxone 2 g IVPB q12h and dexamethasone 3 mg IV-push q6h for 4 days to treat Haemophilus influenzae type b meningitis. The drug reference states that the usual dose of ceftriaxone is 100 mg/kg/dose with a maximum daily dose of 4 g. The recommended dose of dexamethasone for treating H. influenzae type b meningitis is 0.15 mg/kg q6h for 2 to 4 days. Based on the medications prescribed and these findings, which conclusion by the nurse is correct?
- A. The dose of ceftriaxone is too high.
- B. The dose of dexamethasone is too low.
- C. Both medications are safe to administer as prescribed.
- D. The ceftriaxone should be given before the dexamethasone.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: The dose for ceftriaxone is correct (100 mg x 20 kg = 2000 mg; 1000 mg = 1 g; 2000 mg = 2 g). B: The dose of dexamethasone is correct (0.15 mg x 20 kg = 3 mg). C: The doses of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and dexamethasone (Decadron) are at the recommended doses. D: An IV-push medication takes less time to administer than an IV piggyback (IVPB) medication. The dexamethasone should be administered first.
The nurse is caring for an elderly client and providing education. Which of the following would be least appropriate?
- A. The nurse speaks in a loud voice.
- B. The nurse allows additional time after each instruction to allow the client to process.
- C. The nurse provides supplemental written resources.
- D. The nurse breaks up the education into multiple shorter sessions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should not speak in a loud voice just because the client is elderly. The nurse should assess the client for a hearing impairment to see if additional assistance is required. However, elderly clients tend to require more time to process information, since their reaction time is slower, and they may benefit from more frequent, shorter sessions as they fatigue easily. Elderly clients are usually capable of absorbing supplemental written resources.
Oral terbutaline is prescribed for the client with bronchitis. Which comorbidity most warrants the nurse's close monitoring of the client following administration of terbutaline?
- A. Strabismus
- B. Hypertension
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Terbutaline should be used with caution in clients with glaucoma (not strabismus). B: The client's history of hypertension warrants the nurse's close monitoring of the client when terbutaline (Brethine) is administered. It should be used with caution in clients with hypertension because it can precipitate a hypertensive episode. C: Terbutaline should be used with caution in clients with DM (not DI). D: Terbutaline should be used with caution in clients with hyperthyroidism (not hypothyroidism).