The client is prescribed to have an elastic bandage applied to the lower extremity to reduce edema. At which position on the client’s leg should the nurse start wrapping the elastic bandage?
- A. Location A
- B. Location B
- C. Location C
- D. Location D
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should begin to apply the bandage at the distal point and proceed proximally. By starting at this point, trapping fluid atop the foot is avoided. The purpose of the bandage is to apply compression evenly to the lower leg. Starting at the knee, calf, or ankle increases edema distally.
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The client with a left anterior descending (LAD) 90% blockage has crushing chest pain that is unrelieved by taking sublingual nitroglycerin. Which ECG finding is most concerning and should alert the nurse to immediately notify the HCP?
- A. Q waves
- B. Flipped T waves
- C. Peaked T waves
- D. ST segment elevation
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned about ST elevation because it indicates an evolving MI. Q waves suggest a previous MI, flipped T waves indicate ischemia, and peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia, but ST elevation is the most acute and critical finding.
The clinic nurse is teaching the client at risk for developing arteriosclerosis. The nurse should teach the client that the dietary therapy to decrease homo-cysteine levels includes eating foods rich in which nutrient?
- A. Monosaturated fats
- B. B complex Vitamins
- C. Vitamin C
- D. Calcium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Homocysteine interferes with the elasticity of the endothelial layer in blood vessels. Foods rich in B-complex vitamins, especially folic acid, have been found to lower serum homocysteine levels. Monosaturated fats, Vitamin C, and Calcium do not have a direct effect on homocysteine levels.
At 0745 hours, the nurse is informed by the HCP that a cardiac catheterization is to be completed on the client at 1400 hours. Which intervention should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Place the client on NPO (nothing per mouth) status.
- B. Teach the client about the cardiac catheterization.
- C. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of 0.9% NaCl.
- D. Witness the client’s signature on the consent form.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A cardiac catheterization is an invasive procedure requiring the client to lie still in a supine position. The client is usually sedated with medication, such as midazolam, during the procedure. To avoid aspiration, the client should be NPO 6 to 12 hours prior to the procedure, making this the priority at 0745 for a 1400 procedure.
The client newly diagnosed with HF has an ejection fraction of 20%. Which criteria should the nurse use to evaluate the client’s readiness for discharge to home? Select all that apply.
- A. There is a scale in the client’s home
- B. The client started ambulating 24 hours ago
- C. The client is receiving furosemide IV 20 mg bid
- D. A smoking cessation consult is scheduled for 2 days after discharge
- E. A home-care nurse is scheduled to see the client 3 days after discharge
Correct Answer: A;B;E
Rationale: The nurse should evaluate: A) A scale to monitor fluid status; B) Ambulation to confirm functional capability; E) Home-care nurse visit within 3 days for support. IV furosemide (C) should be oral before discharge, and smoking cessation (D) should start before discharge.
The client is discovered to have a popliteal aneurysm. Because of the aneurysm, the nurse should closely monitor the client for which associated problem?
- A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
- B. Ischemia in the lower limb
- C. Pulmonary embolism
- D. Raynaud’s phenomenon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A popliteal aneurysm (located in the space behind the knee) may cause ischemia in the leg distal to the aneurysm due to thrombus forming inside the aneurysm and potential emboli. Other options are unrelated to popliteal aneurysms.