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The client is receiving thrombolytic therapy for a diagnosed myocardial infarction (MI). Which assessment data indicate the therapy is successful?
- A. The client's ST segment is becoming more depressed.
- B. The client is exhibiting reperfusion dysrhythmias.
- C. The client's cardiac isoenzyme CK-MB is not elevated.
- D. The D-dimer is negative at two (2) hours post-MI.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reperfusion dysrhythmias (e.g., PVCs) indicate restored coronary flow, a sign of thrombolytic success. ST depression, normal CK-MB, or D-dimer are not specific.
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A 13-month-old child is admitted to the emergency room with salicylate poisoning. Her mother found her beside the empty bottle of adult aspirin. She says there were 'about 10' aspirin left in the bottle. What manifestations would the nurse most expect to see in the child?
- A. Bradypnea and pallor
- B. Hyperventilation and hyperpyrexia
- C. Subnormal temperature and bleeding
- D. Melena and bradycardia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Salicylate poisoning causes metabolic acidosis, leading to hyperventilation, and stimulates the CNS, causing fever (hyperpyrexia).
The client in end-stage renal disease is a Jehovah's Witness. The HCP orders erythropoietin (Epogen), a biologic response modifier, subcutaneously for anemia. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Question this order because of the client's religion.
- B. Encourage the client to talk to his or her minister.
- C. Administer the medication subcutaneously as ordered.
- D. Obtain the informed consent prior to administering.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epogen is synthetic, not blood-derived, so it’s acceptable for Jehovah’s Witnesses. Administer as ordered; questioning, minister consultation, or consent are unnecessary.
The nurse administered an IV broad-spectrum antibiotic scheduled every six (6) hours to the client with a systemic infection at 0800. At 1000, the culture and sensitivity prompted the HCP to change the IV antibiotic. When transcribing the new antibiotic order, when would the initial dose be administered?
- A. Schedule the dose for 1400.
- B. Schedule the dose for the next day.
- C. Check with the HCP to determine when to start.
- D. Administer the dose within one (1) hour of the order.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: New antibiotic orders for active infections require prompt administration (within 1 hour) to maintain therapeutic levels, per sepsis guidelines.
A woman who is taking cortisone for an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis is upset about the fat face she has developed. She says to the nurse, 'I'm going to quit taking that cortisone.' The nurse's response should be based on which understanding?
- A. Cortisone does not cause a fat face.
- B. The symptoms will lessen as her body adjusts to the medication.
- C. The drug should be immediately discontinued when adverse effects occur.
- D. Cortisone should never be abruptly discontinued.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Abrupt discontinuation of cortisone can cause adrenal insufficiency; tapering is required to prevent complications.
The nurse is preparing to administer phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg intravenous push, to the client with a head injury who has an IV of D5W at 50 mL/hr. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Flush the IV tubing before and after with normal saline.
- B. Administer the medication if the Dilantin level is 22 mcg/mL.
- C. Push the Dilantin intravenously slowly over five (5) minutes.
- D. Expect the intravenous tubing to turn cloudy when infusing medication.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with D5W; saline flush prevents precipitation. Level of 22 mcg/mL is toxic, slow push is correct but not primary, and cloudiness is avoidable.