Nokea
The client is seven (7) days post total hip replacement. Which statement by the client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. I have bad muscle spasms in my lower leg of the affected extremity.
- B. I just can't 'catch my breath' over the past few minutes and I think I am in grave danger.
- C. I have to use the bedpan to pass my water at least every 1 to 2 hours.
- D. It seems that the pain medication is not working as well today.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: While all statements by the client require attention, the most critical one that demands immediate action is option B. Clients who have undergone hip or knee surgery are at an increased risk of postoperative pulmonary embolism. Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of this condition. Without appropriate prophylaxis such as anticoagulant therapy, deep vein thrombosis (DVT) can develop within 7 to 14 days after surgery, potentially leading to pulmonary embolism. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of DVT, which include pain, tenderness, skin discoloration, swelling, or tightness in the affected leg. Signs of pulmonary embolism include sudden onset dyspnea, tachycardia, confusion, and pleuritic chest pain. Option B indicates a potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications.
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During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
- A. Multiple sclerosis
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia nervosa
- D. Systemic sclerosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.
A client is brought into the emergency department after finishing a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The client is experiencing dyspnea, chest tightness, and agitation. Her blood pressure is 88/58, she has generalized hives over her body, and her lips and tongue are swollen. After the nurse calls for help, what is the next appropriate action?
- A. Start an IV and administer a 1-liter bolus of Lactated Ringer's solution
- B. Administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine IM
- C. Administer 15 mg diphenhydramine IM
- D. Monitor the client until help arrives
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction will likely present with rash or hives, swelling of the lips, face, or tongue, hypotension, or dyspnea. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of anaphylaxis with dyspnea, chest tightness, hives, hypotension, and swelling of the lips and tongue. The next appropriate action would be to administer 0.3 mg of 1:1000 epinephrine intramuscularly. Epinephrine helps relax the muscles of the airway, improve breathing, and increase oxygenation, which is crucial in managing anaphylaxis. Starting an IV and administering fluids can be important but not the immediate priority. Diphenhydramine may be used as an adjunct therapy but should not delay the administration of epinephrine in the acute phase of anaphylaxis. Monitoring the client without providing immediate treatment can lead to a worsening of the anaphylactic reaction, potentially resulting in a life-threatening situation.
A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?
- A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
- B. Edema of the ankles
- C. Gastric irritability
- D. Decreased appetite
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.
A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
- C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
- D. Generalized edema.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?
- A. Borrelia burgdorferi
- B. Streptococcus pyogenes
- C. Bacillus anthracis
- D. Enterococcus faecalis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lyme disease, the most common vector-borne disease in the United States, is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with strep throat and other infections, not Lyme disease. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, a separate infectious disease. Enterococcus faecalis is more commonly linked to urinary tract infections and other healthcare-associated infections, not Lyme disease.