Nokea
The client was recently diagnosed with chronic gastritis. What health practice should the nurse address when teaching the client to limit exacerbations of the disease?
- A. Perform 15 minutes of physical activity at least three times per week.
- B. Avoid taking aspirin to treat pain or fever.
- C. Take multivitamins as prescribed and eat organic foods whenever possible.
- D. Maintain a healthy body weight.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid taking aspirin to treat pain or fever. Aspirin can irritate the stomach lining, exacerbating gastritis symptoms. By avoiding aspirin, the client can reduce the risk of worsening gastritis.
A: Physical activity is beneficial for overall health but does not directly impact gastritis exacerbations.
C: While multivitamins and organic foods are generally healthy choices, they do not specifically address gastritis exacerbations.
D: Maintaining a healthy body weight is important for overall health but does not directly prevent gastritis exacerbations.
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After a client with ascites due to liver cirrhosis undergoes a paracentesis, what should the nurse do post-procedure?
- A. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure and heart rate
- C. Position the client flat on their back
- D. Administer a dose of furosemide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood pressure and heart rate. Post-paracentesis, there is a risk of hypotension due to sudden fluid shift. Monitoring BP and HR is crucial to detect and manage any hemodynamic changes promptly. Encouraging fluid intake (choice A) may exacerbate ascites. Positioning flat (choice C) may lead to hypotension. Administering furosemide (choice D) without monitoring vital signs can worsen hypotension.
The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Red man syndrome.
- B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- C. Mild itching at the IV site.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red man syndrome. This is a severe adverse reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. It can progress rapidly to anaphylaxis. Immediate reporting is crucial for prompt intervention. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within normal range, mild itching at the IV site is common and can be managed topically, and nausea and vomiting are common side effects of vancomycin but are not life-threatening compared to Red man syndrome.
An older adult with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease has been experiencing fecal incontinence, with no recent change in stool character noted by the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?
- A. Keep a food diary to identify foods that worsen the client's symptoms
- B. Provide the client with a bland, low-residue diet
- C. Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis
- D. Collaborate with the primary provider to secure an order for loperamide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. This intervention is appropriate for managing fecal incontinence in individuals with Alzheimer's disease. By establishing a routine for toileting, the nurse can help the client maintain continence and reduce the risk of accidents. This approach also promotes dignity and independence for the client.
A: Keeping a food diary may be helpful for identifying triggers of fecal incontinence, but it is not the most immediate intervention in this case.
B: Providing a bland, low-residue diet may not directly address the issue of fecal incontinence and may not be necessary if there has been no recent change in stool character.
D: Securing an order for loperamide may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the first-line intervention for managing fecal incontinence in this scenario.
A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hypothyroidism
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Thyroiditis
- D. Thyroid cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypothyroidism. The patient's symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance are classic signs of hypothyroidism. Elevated TSH and low free T4 levels indicate primary hypothyroidism. TSH is high due to the pituitary gland trying to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more thyroid hormones, but the thyroid gland is unable to do so. Hyperthyroidism (choice B) would present with opposite symptoms and lab values. Thyroiditis (choice C) typically presents with transient hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism. Thyroid cancer (choice D) is less common and typically does not present with these typical hypothyroid symptoms and lab findings.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 1
- B. 2
- C. 3
- D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 tablets. To administer 0.25 mg of digoxin daily using 0.125 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet is 0.125 mg, so 2 tablets will equal 0.25 mg, which is the required dose. The other choices are incorrect because administering 1 tablet would only provide 0.125 mg (half the required dose), administering 3 tablets would provide 0.375 mg (exceeding the required dose), and administering 4 tablets would provide 0.5 mg (double the required dose). Thus, the correct answer is to administer 2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 0.25 mg dose.