Nokea
The client who had an abdominal surgery has a Jackson Pratt (JP) drainage tube. Which assessment data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. The bulb is round and has 40 mL of fluid.
- B. The drainage tube is taped to the dressing.
- C. The JP insertion site is pink and has no drainage.
- D. The JP bulb has suction and is sunken in.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A round JP bulb with 40 mL of fluid indicates loss of suction, risking fluid accumulation and infection, requiring immediate intervention. Taping, pink site, and suction are normal.
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A client is to have a sigmoidoscopy in the morning. Which activity will be included in the care of this client?
- A. Give him an enema one hour before the examination.
- B. Keep him NPO for eight hours before the examination.
- C. Order a low-fat, low-residue diet for breakfast.
- D. Administer enemas until the returns are clear this evening.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An enema one hour before sigmoidoscopy clears the sigmoid colon for better visualization.
The nurse is caring for the immediate postoperative client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which task could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Check the abdominal dressings for bleeding.
- B. Increase the IV fluid if the blood pressure is low.
- C. Ambulate the client to the bathroom.
- D. Auscultate the breath sounds in all lobes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ambulating the client is within the UAP’s scope, promoting recovery. Checking dressings, adjusting IV fluids, and auscultating breath sounds require RN assessment skills.
The nurse is planning the care of a client diagnosed with lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction. Which dietary modifications should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Allow any of the client's favorite foods as long as the amount is limited.
- B. Have the client perform eructation exercises several times a day.
- C. Eat four (4) to six (6) small meals a day and limit fluids during mealtimes.
- D. Encourage the client to consume a glass of red wine with one (1) meal a day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Eating small, frequent meals reduces stomach distension, which can trigger reflux, and limiting fluids during meals prevents excessive gastric volume. Favorite foods may include triggers, eructation exercises are not standard, and alcohol like red wine can worsen GERD.
The client recovering from acute pancreatitis who has been NPO asks the nurse, “When can I start eating again?” Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
- A. “As soon as you start to feel hungry you can begin eating.”
- B. “When I hear that your bowel sounds are active and you are passing flatus.”
- C. “When your pain is controlled and your serum lipase level has decreased.”
- D. “You will be NPO for at least more 2 weeks; oral intake stimulates the pancreas.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A. Regaining appetite is a positive sign, but it must be accompanied by a decrease in pain before the client is allowed to take food orally. B. Intestinal peristalsis may be slowed due to inflammation associated with acute pancreatitis, but the return of bowel sounds and flatus is not used to determine when to begin oral intake. C. This response is correct. Once pain is controlled and the serum enzyme levels begin to decrease, the client can begin oral intake. These are signs that the pancreas is healing. D. There is no specific time limit for being NPO.
The nurse is caring for an elderly client diagnosed with acute gastritis. Which client problem is priority for this client?
- A. Fluid volume deficit.
- B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements.
- C. Impaired tissue perfusion.
- D. Alteration in comfort.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fluid volume deficit is the priority in elderly clients with acute gastritis due to vomiting/diarrhea, risking dehydration. Nutrition, perfusion, and comfort are secondary.