Nokea
The client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion. Hypokalemia is caused by other diuretics, hypoglycemia is unrelated, and spironolactone lowers blood pressure.
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A client had a myocardial infarction 5 days ago. His physician has ordered an echocardiogram to determine how his myocardial infarction has affected his ventricular wall motion. When the client asks if this test is painful, an appropriate response is:
- A. No, but you must be able to ride on a stationary bicycle while the test is being performed.
- B. No, but you will have to lie still and the gel that is used may be cool.
- C. Yes, but your physician will be there and will order pain medicine for you.
- D. Your physician has ordered medicine, which you will be given before you go for the test, which will make you sleepy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An echocardiogram is non-invasive, requiring the client to lie still while cool gel is applied for ultrasound imaging, with no pain involved.
A client sustained second- and third-degree burns to his face, neck, and upper chest. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be given the highest priority in the first 8 hours' postburn?
- A. Fluid volume deficit secondary to alteration in skin integrity
- B. Alteration in comfort secondary to alteration in skin integrity
- C. Alteration in sensation secondary to third-degree burn
- D. Alteration in airway integrity secondary to edema of neck and face, which in turn is secondary to alteration in skin integrity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alteration in airway integrity is the highest priority for this client in the first 8 hours postburn. Failure to continually assess this client's airway status could result in poor ventilation and oxygenation, in addition to an inability to intubate the client secondary to excessive edema formation in the neck.
A female client at 30 weeks' gestation is brought into the emergency department after falling down a flight of stairs. On examination, the physician notes a rigid, boardlike abdomen; FHR in the 160s; and stable vital signs. Considering possible abdominal trauma, which obstetric emergency must be anticipated?
- A. Abruptio placentae
- B. Ectopic pregnancy
- C. Massive uterine rupture
- D. Placenta previa
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abruptio placentae, the complete or partial separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, can be caused by external trauma. When hemorrhage is concealed, one sign is a rapid increase in uterine size with rigidity. Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the embryo implants itself outside the uterine cavity. Massive uterine rupture occurs during labor when the uterine contents are extruded through the uterine wall. It is usually due to weakness from a pre-existing uterine scar and trauma from instruments or an obstetrical intervention. Placenta previa is the condition in which the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment and either completely or partially covers the cervical os.
A client has been admitted to the nursing unit with the diagnosis of severe anemia. She is slightly short of breath, has episodes of dizziness, and complains her heart sometimes feels like it will 'beat out of her chest.' The physician has ordered her to receive 2 U of packed red blood cells. The most important nursing action to be taken is:
- A. Starting an 18-gauge IV infusion
- B. Having the consent form on the chart
- C. Administering the correct blood product to the correct client
- D. Transfusing the blood in a 2-hour time frame
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An 18-gauge IV is an appropriate size for administering blood; however, client safety demands that the right blood product must be administered. The consent form is legally necessary to be on the chart, but client safety is maintained by giving the correct blood component to the correct client. Administering the correct blood product to the correct client will maintain physiological safety and minimize transfusion reactions. The blood administration should take place over the ordered time frame designated by the physician.
A mother continues to breast-feed her 3-month-old infant. She tells the nurse that over the past 3 days she has not been producing enough milk to satisfy the infant. The nurse advises the mother to do which of the following?
- A. Start the child on solid food.
- B. Nurse the child more frequently during this growth spurt.
- C. Provide supplements for the child between breastfeeding so you will have enough milk.
- D. Wait 4 hours between feedings so that your breasts will fill up.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Solid foods introduced before 4-6 months of age are not compatible with the abilities of the GI tract and the nutritional needs of the infant. Production of milk is supply and demand. A common growth spurt occurs at 3 months of age, and more frequent nursing will increase the milk supply to satisfy the infant. Supplementation will decrease the infant's appetite and in turn decrease the milk supply. When the infant nurses less often or with less vigor, the amount of milk produced decreases. Rigid feeding schedules lead to a decreased milk supply, whereas frequent nursing signals the mother's body to produce a correspondingly increased amount of milk.