Nokea
Early PPH is defined as blood loss greater than ____ 24h after delivery
- A. 500 mL 24h after normal delivery
- B. 1000 48h after c/s (lat
- C. 1500 mL after 48hr
- D. 750 mL after 24h vaginal delivery
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is defined as blood loss greater than 500 mL within the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery. This definition is crucial because it helps healthcare providers identify and promptly address any excessive bleeding that may occur in the immediate postpartum period. Monitoring postpartum bleeding is essential to prevent complications related to PPH, such as maternal anemia, hypovolemic shock, and even maternal death. By knowing the definition of early PPH, healthcare providers can take timely interventions to manage and treat postpartum hemorrhage effectively.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client, who is in the second trimester of pregnancy, gestation. The client is receiving magnesium sulfate tells the nurse that she has developed a reddish-pink intravenously for pre-eclampsia. Which assessment skin color on the palm of her hands. Which of the fol- requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 130/90 mm Hg
- B. Urine output of 20 mL in past hour
- C. Facial flushing
- D. Patellar reflexes 2+
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Facial flushing in a pregnant client receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia can be a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic agent used to prevent seizures in pre-eclamptic patients; however, excessive levels of magnesium can cause symptoms such as flushing, lethargy, blurred vision, slurred speech, and muscle weakness. In severe cases, magnesium toxicity can progress to respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and death. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. The other options do not present immediate concerning signs related to magnesium toxicity.
Mother in late middle age who is certain she is not pregnant tells
the nurse during an office visit she has urinary problems as well as
sensation of bearing down and of something in the vagina. The nurse
should realize that the client is most likely suffering from:
- A. Uterine prolapse
- B. Cystocele/rectocele
- C. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
- D. Endometriosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A cystocele/rectocele occurs when the supportive tissue between a woman's bladder and vaginal wall weakens, allowing the bladder to bulge into the vagina. This can lead to urinary problems such as difficulty emptying the bladder completely, frequent urination, and urinary incontinence. The fact that the mother is in late middle age and certain she is not pregnant, combined with her urinary problems, suggests that she may be experiencing symptoms of a cystocele/rectocele. It is important for the nurse to further assess the client's symptoms and provide appropriate education and treatment options.
A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a patient who is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 min, last 90 sec, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
- B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- D. Slow the client's rate of breathing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The described scenario suggests the presence of late decelerations, which occur when uteroplacental insufficiency leads to decreased fetal oxygenation. In this case, the late decelerations are evident with each contraction, indicating a potential adverse reaction to the oxytocin infusion. The appropriate action would be to discontinue the infusion of IV oxytocin to prevent further compromise to fetal well-being. Alternatively, the nurse should consider repositioning the mother, administering oxygen via a face mask, and notifying the healthcare provider for further assessment and interventions.
A nurse educator is teaching a class to nursing developing cervical cancer. Which client is at students about the incidence of sexually transmitted highest risk? infections (STIs) and their impact on public health.
- A. Client with a Pap test and an HPV screen positive Which is the most commonly reported STI in the for type 12 United States?
- B. Client who is 40 years old and stopped smoking
- C. Syphilis
- D. Gonorrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the United States. HPV infection, especially high-risk types such as HPV-16, is strongly associated with cervical cancer. Therefore, a client who is positive for HPV type 16 on an HPV screen is at the highest risk for developing cervical cancer among the given choices. The nurse educator would need to emphasize the importance of regular screening, follow-up, and prevention strategies for this client to reduce the risk of cervical cancer development.
The pediatric nurse is being pulled to the nursery for the day. The census is six neonates. Which 3 neonates are the best client care assignment for the pediatric nurse?? Select all that apply:
- A. An 18-hour post term, breast-fed neonate with jaundice
- B. A 2-day old who has not passed a meconium stool
- C. A recent admission with Apgar score of 8 out of 10
- D. A 1-day-old with caput succedaneum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: - A. An 18-hour post-term, breast-fed neonate with jaundice would be a good assignment for the pediatric nurse because a neonate with jaundice requires close monitoring of bilirubin levels and feeding patterns. Breastfeeding can also affect jaundice levels, so the nurse can provide education and support to ensure successful breastfeeding and manage jaundice effectively.