Nokea
The client with congestive heart failure has been educated about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?
- A. Cheese sandwich with a glass of 2% milk
- B. Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple
- C. Cheeseburger and baked potato
- D. Mushroom pizza and ice cream
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple. This lunch choice is suitable for a client with congestive heart failure as it is low in sodium. Sliced turkey is a lean protein choice, and canned pineapple is a low-sodium fruit option. Choice A contains high-sodium items like cheese and 2% milk. Choice C includes a cheeseburger, which is typically high in sodium, and a baked potato could also be high in sodium depending on preparation. Choice D consists of mushroom pizza and ice cream, both of which can be high in sodium, especially in processed or restaurant-prepared forms.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse recommend to the client as an appropriate sweetener?
- A. Corn syrup
- B. Natural honey
- C. Nonnutritive sugar substitute
- D. Agave nectar
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonnutritive sugar substitutes are suitable for individuals with diabetes, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, as they do not affect blood glucose levels. Corn syrup and agave nectar contain high levels of sugar that can spike blood glucose levels, making them unsuitable for diabetes management. While natural honey is a natural sweetener, it can still impact blood sugar levels and is not the optimal choice for individuals with diabetes.
A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- C. White blood cells
- D. Platelets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.
A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?
- A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
- B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
- C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
- D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial point to reinforce to the patient after a vasectomy is the need for continued contraception until it is confirmed that the ejaculate is sperm-free. Choice A emphasizes this by highlighting the importance of using another form of contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm. This is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D do not address the key point of ensuring contraception until sperm absence is confirmed and are therefore not as important to reinforce in this scenario.
A client is receiving treatment for hypothyroidism. Which of these assessments would be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Heart rate of 70 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute
- D. Temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg would be most concerning to the nurse because changes in blood pressure can indicate worsening hypothyroidism, potentially leading to complications such as myxedema coma. A heart rate of 70 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are within normal ranges and not typically directly associated with hypothyroidism complications.
A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
- A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
- B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
- C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
- D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.