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The client with COPD has developed polycythemia vera, and the nurse completes teaching on measures to prevent complications. During a home visit, the nurse evaluates that the client is correctly following the teaching when which actions are noted?
- A. Tells the nurse about discontinuing iron supplements.
- B. States increasing alcohol intake to decrease blood viscosity.
- C. Presents a record that shows a daily fluid intake of 3000 mL.
- D. Discusses yesterday’s phlebotomy treatment to remove blood.
- E. Shows the nurse 3 menu plan for eating three large meals daily.
- F. Wears antiembolic stockings and sits in a recliner with legs uncrossed
Correct Answer: A, C, D, F
Rationale: Iron supplements, including those in multi-vitamins, should be avoided because the iron stimulates RBC production. B. Alcohol increases the risk of bleeding. C. Increasing fluid intake to 3000 mL daily will help decrease blood viscosity. D. Phlebotomy is performed on a routine or intermittent basis to diminish blood viscosity, deplete iron stores, and decrease the client’s ability to manufacture excess erythrocytes. E. Frequent, small meals are better tolerated, especially if the liver is involved. F. Elevating the legs, avoiding constriction or crossing the legs, and wearing antiembolic stockings help prevent DVT.
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When reviewing the client’s medical record, the experienced nurse discovers that the client’s breast cancer is staged as T4 N3 M1. Which comment made by the experienced nurse to the new nurse is correct?
- A. “This client has a 3-cm breast tumor that has spread to only one lymph node.”
- B. “The TNM system is used to classify solid tumors by size and degree of spread.”
- C. “The higher the number in the TNM system, the better the chances are for a cure.”
- D. “This TNM system helps to classify tumors as either well- or poorly differentiated.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A. The T4 N3 M1 indicates that the client’s primary tumor is very large, involves 3 lymph nodes, with distant metastasis (T is the size and extent and ranges from 1-4; N is number of nodes involved, and M1 indicates metastasis). B. This statement is correct. The tumor-node-metastasis (TNM) system classifies solid tumors by size and degree of spread. It is an international system that allows comparison of statistics among cancer centers. C. A higher number means that a more serious situation exists. D. A different rating system is used to define the cell types of tumors as well differentiated (closely resembles normal tissue) or poorly differentiated (tumor that contains some normal cells, but most cells are abnormal).
The nurse is caring for a client in a sickle cell crisis. Which is the pain regimen of choice to relieve the pain?
- A. Frequent aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and a nonnarcotic analgesic.
- B. Motrin (ibuprofen), a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), prn.
- C. Demerol (meperidine), a narcotic analgesic, every four (4) hours.
- D. Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, every two (2) to three (3) hours prn.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine PRN (D) is preferred for severe SCA crisis pain, titrated to relief. Aspirin (A) and ibuprofen (B) are insufficient and risk bleeding, and meperidine (C) risks seizures.
The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with vaso-occlusive crisis. Which indicates the client is not meeting an appropriate stage of growth and development according to Erikson?
- A. The 32-year-old client does not have a significant other and is on disability.
- B. The 28-year-old client is actively involved in the care of a six (6)-year-old child.
- C. The 40-year-old client has a full-time job and cares for an aged parent.
- D. The 19-year-old client is a full-time college student and has many friends.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: At 32 (Intimacy vs. Isolation), lack of a significant other and disability (A) suggest isolation, not meeting Erikson’s stage. Parenting (B), caregiving (C), and socializing (D) align with Generativity, Generativity, and Identity stages.
In which order should the nurse address the assessment findings for the client who has undergone a total laryngectomy? Place the findings in the order of priority.
- A. Copious oral secretions and nasal mucus draining from the nose
- B. Restless and has a mucus plug in the tracheostomy
- C. NG tube used for intermittent feedings pulled halfway out
- D. Oozing serosanguineous drainage around the tracheostomy tube and dressing saturated
Correct Answer: B, A, D, C
Rationale: . Restless and has a mucus plug in the tracheostomy is priority requiring immediate attention due to the negative impact on air exchange. The client needs immediate suctioning. A. Copious oral secretions and nasal mucus draining from the nose should be next. After a total laryngectomy the mouth does not communicate with the trachea, so copious oral secretions and nasal drainage would not influence air exchange, but these create a source of discomfort for the client. D. Oozing serosanguineous drainage around the tracheostomy tube and saturated dressing should be addressed third. Changing the dressing now would allow the nurse to inspect the site and ensure tube patency. C. NG tube used for intermittent feedings pulled halfway out can be addressed last. There is no indication that a tube feeding is infusing. The HCP should be contacted to reinsert the NG tube to prevent disruption of the suture line in the esophagus.
The nurse is discussing dietary sources of iron with a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which menu, if selected by the client, indicates the best understanding of the diet?
- A. Milkshake, hot dog, and beets
- B. Beef steak, spinach, and grape juice
- C. Chicken salad, green peas, and coffee
- D. Macaroni and cheese, coleslaw, and lemonade
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beef, spinach, and grape juice contain iron. Milk contains no iron, and the other options have lower iron content.