Nokea
The client with coronary artery disease is prescribed one (1) baby aspirin a day. Which instructions should the nurse provide the client concerning this medication?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Do not take Tylenol while taking this drug.
- C. If experiencing joint pain, notify the HCP.
- D. Notify the HCP if stools become dark and tarry.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dark, tarry stools suggest GI bleeding, a serious aspirin side effect, requiring HCP notification. Empty stomach, Tylenol, or joint pain are less critical.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving methyldopa hydrochloride (Aldomet) intravenously. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate to the nurse that the client may be having an adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Headache
- B. Mood changes
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Palpitations
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mood changes. The nurse should assess the client for alterations in mental status such as mood changes. These symptoms should be reported promptly.
An adult received regular insulin at 7:00 A.M. At 10:00 A.M., she is irritable and sweaty, but her skin is cool. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Have her lie down for a rest
- B. Give her a cola drink
- C. Give ordered insulin
- D. Encourage exercise
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irritability, sweating, and cool skin suggest hypoglycemia. A cola drink provides quick-acting carbohydrates to raise blood sugar.
The nurse is monitoring a client receiving a thrombolytic agent, alteplase (Activase tissue plasminogen activator), for treatment of a myocardial infarction. What outcome indicates the client is receiving adequate therapy within the first hours of treatment?
- A. Absence of a dysrhythmia (or arrhythmia)
- B. Blood pressure reduction
- C. Cardiac enzymes are within normal limits
- D. Return of ST segment to baseline on ECG
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Return of ST segment to baseline on ECG. Improved perfusion should result from this medication, along with the reduction of ST segment elevation.
The client's vital signs are T 99.2°F, AP 59, R 20, and BP 108/72. Which medication would the nurse question administering?
- A. Theo-Dur, a bronchodilator.
- B. Inderal, a beta blocker.
- C. Ampicillin, an antibiotic.
- D. Cardizem, a calcium channel blocker.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inderal (propranolol) slows HR; an apical pulse of 59 warrants holding it, per guidelines, to avoid bradycardia. Other meds are unaffected by HR.
Which observation, if reported by a client, is most suggestive of an adverse reaction to gentamicin?
- A. A WBC of 8000
- B. Ringing in the ears
- C. Itching
- D. Nasal stuffiness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gentamicin is ototoxic. Ringing in the ears suggests possible damage to the eighth cranial nerve, the auditory nerve. A WBC of 8000 is normal.