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The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Serum electrolytes
- D. Liver function tests
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
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Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Serum electrolytes
- D. Liver function tests
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.
The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client with coronary artery disease who is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should advise the client to choose which food item?
- A. Eggs and bacon
- B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
- C. Cream of chicken soup
- D. Grilled cheese sandwich
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is a suitable choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet as it is low in cholesterol and provides heart-healthy benefits. Eggs and bacon, cream of chicken soup, and grilled cheese sandwich are higher in cholesterol and may not be as heart-healthy for this client. Eggs and bacon are high in cholesterol, cream of chicken soup may contain saturated fats, and a grilled cheese sandwich typically contains high amounts of fat and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-cholesterol diet.
The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.
A client with a history of hypertension is being discharged on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will use fresh herbs and spices instead of salt.
- B. I will avoid canned soups and processed foods.
- C. I can eat as much bacon and sausage as I want because they taste good.
- D. I will read food labels to check for sodium content.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because bacon and sausage are high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet requirement. Consuming them freely would contribute to increased sodium intake, which is not suitable for managing hypertension. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate understanding and actions for a low-sodium diet, such as using alternatives to salt, avoiding processed foods, and checking food labels for sodium content.
A client with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?
- A. Take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain.
- B. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
- C. Take nitroglycerin with meals to prevent stomach upset.
- D. Store nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) is to take it at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin works rapidly to dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Taking it promptly can help alleviate symptoms quickly and prevent the condition from worsening. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually (under the tongue) and not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not typically taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be stored in its original container away from heat and light.