Nokea
The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patient develops hepatotoxicity from chronic acetaminophen use. The primary care NP may recommend:
- A. milk thistle.
- B. chondroitin.
- C. coenzyme Q.
- D. glucosamine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because milk thistle protects the liver from hepatotoxins like acetaminophen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they lack this hepatoprotective effect.
Risks to the fetus in the second trimester include:
- A. Exposure to teratogens causing abnormal organ development
- B. Maternal use of tobacco causing intrauterine growth restriction
- C. Maternal hypertension causing placental insufficiency
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is correct because the second trimester involves growth, and tobacco restricts it via vasoconstriction, a key risk then. Choice A is incorrect as teratogens primarily affect organ development in the first trimester. Choice C is wrong because hypertension's placental effects are more third-trimester prominent. Choice D is incorrect since B is the specific second-trimester concern.
An 86-year-old patient is seen in clinic for a scheduled follow-up after starting a new oral medication 1 month prior. The patient reports no change in symptoms, and a laboratory test reveals a subtherapeutic serum drug level. The NP caring for this patient should:
- A. consider ordering more frequent dosing of the drug.
- B. titrate the patient's dose upward and recheck in 1 month.
- C. ask the patient about any increased frequency of bowel movements.
- D. determine the number of pills left in the patient's prescription bottle.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because elderly patients often have adherence issues due to cost or confusion, so checking pill count assesses compliance before adjusting dose. Choice A is incorrect as frequency isn’t the first step. Choice B is wrong since dose increase without compliance check is premature. Choice C is inaccurate as bowel changes aren’t the primary concern.
The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.
The client with diabetes mellitus has gangrene of the toes to the midfoot. Which goal should be included in this client's plan of care?
- A. Restore skin integrity.
- B. Prevent infection.
- C. Promote healing.
- D. Improve nutrition.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Preventing infection is crucial in clients with gangrene to halt the spread of infection and avert further complications. Infections can exacerbate tissue damage and lead to systemic complications, making infection prevention a priority in the care plan for this client. Restoring skin integrity and promoting healing may not be achievable goals until the infection is under control. Improving nutrition is important for overall health but may not be the priority when the immediate concern is preventing infection.