The client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is asking for help with the repetitive behaviors. The nurse knows that these are a method of dealing with:
- A. Fearful situations
- B. Depression
- C. Delusions
- D. Anxiety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Anxiety. Repetitive behaviors in OCD serve as a way for individuals to cope with their anxiety. These behaviors are often performed to reduce the distress caused by obsessive thoughts. Choice A, fearful situations, is incorrect because the behaviors are more related to managing anxiety rather than fear itself. Choice B, depression, is incorrect as OCD behaviors are not typically a method of coping with depression. Choice C, delusions, is also incorrect as these behaviors are not aimed at managing delusional thoughts but rather anxiety in OCD.
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A child presents to the school nurse with left knee pain after suffering a fall on the playground. Which action should the nurse do first?
- A. Instruct the child to extend the affected knee
- B. Perform range of motion exercises on both knees
- C. Compare the appearance of the left knee to the right knee
- D. Have the child soak the affected knee in warm water
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Comparing the appearance of the left knee to the right knee is the most appropriate initial action as it provides a baseline for assessing any visible differences such as swelling, bruising, or deformities. This comparison helps the nurse identify any acute changes in the affected knee's appearance after the fall. Instructing the child to extend the affected knee (Choice A) may worsen the pain or cause further injury. Performing range of motion exercises on both knees (Choice B) could exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until a proper assessment is done. Having the child soak the affected knee in warm water (Choice D) is not the priority at this stage as assessing for any physical changes is more crucial.
The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?
- A. Muscle tetany
- B. Syncope
- C. Numbness
- D. Anxiety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.
While Fluorouracil (5FU®) is being infused, a client complains of burning at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Aspirate the IV site for blood return.
- B. Slow the infusion.
- C. Inspect the IV site.
- D. Stop the infusion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to inspect the IV site. This is important to assess for any signs of infiltration or extravasation, which could be causing the burning sensation. Aspirating the IV site for blood return (Choice A) may not be the initial priority as it does not directly address the client's complaint of burning. Slowing the infusion (Choice B) may help alleviate discomfort but should not be done before inspecting the site. Stopping the infusion (Choice D) may be necessary, but inspecting the site should come first to determine the appropriate course of action.
Which reported symptom would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?
- A. Oily skin and hair
- B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
- C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
- D. Increased blood glucose level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking aldosterone to retain sodium and water. This retention can lead to weight gain due to increased fluid retention. Rapid weight gain, such as 6 pounds in one week, is a concerning sign of excessive fluid retention, indicating a potential overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not specific symptoms of excessive fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease.
Following a thyroidectomy, a client is complaining of shortness of breath (SOB) and neck pressure. Which nursing action is the best response?
- A. Stay with the client, remove the dressing, and elevate the head of bed.
- B. Call a code, open the trach set, and position the client supine.
- C. Have the client say "EEE"? to check for laryngeal integrity.
- D. Immediately go to the nurse's station and call the physician
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct! The client is displaying signs of respiratory distress after a thyroidectomy. By staying with the client, removing the dressing around the neck, and elevating the head of the bed, the nurse can assess the airway and breathing status more effectively. This immediate action can help alleviate any potential airway obstruction. Choice B is incorrect because calling a code and opening the trach set without initial assessment and basic interventions may delay necessary actions. Choice C is incorrect as having the client say "EEE"? is not as immediate or effective in addressing the respiratory distress. Choice D is incorrect as leaving the client alone and calling the physician without providing immediate assistance can be detrimental in a situation of potential airway compromise.