The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
- A. Space the administration every 4
- B. Use the drug for a short time only
- C. Decrease the piroxicam dosage
- D. Take piroxicam with food or oral antacid
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Taking piroxicam with food or an oral antacid can help reduce GI irritation as it can protect the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effects on prostaglandin synthesis. Spacing the administration every 4 hours (choice A) may not necessarily prevent GI upset. Using the drug for a short time only (choice B) may not address the immediate concern of GI irritation. Decreasing the piroxicam dosage (choice C) may not be necessary if taking it with food or an antacid can effectively alleviate the GI upset.
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A patient tells his nurse that he has delayed having TURP because he is afraid it will affect his sexual function. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. “Don’t worry about sterility; sperm production is not affected by this surgery.”
- B. “Would you like some information about implants used for impotence?”
- C. “This type of surgery rarely affects the ability to have an erection or ejaculation.”
- D. “There are many methods of sexual expression that are alternatives to sexual intercourse.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “This type of surgery rarely affects the ability to have an erection or ejaculation.” This response is appropriate because it provides accurate information that addresses the patient's concern about sexual function without making any false claims. TURP (Transurethral Resection of the Prostate) typically does not impact a patient's ability to have an erection or ejaculate. This reassurance can help alleviate the patient's fears and provide him with accurate information to make an informed decision.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: “Don’t worry about sterility; sperm production is not affected by this surgery.” - This is incorrect as the concern is more about sexual function than sterility.
B: “Would you like some information about implants used for impotence?” - This is incorrect as it jumps to a solution without addressing the patient's specific concern about TURP affecting sexual function.
D: “There are many methods of sexual expression that are alternatives to sexual intercourse
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
- A. Acne
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Cough
- D. Heartburn
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect is a dry, persistent cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This is a distinctive side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Acne (A), diarrhea (B), and heartburn (D) are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are less likely side effects.
A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?
- A. It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis
- B. It inhibits ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis
- C. It’s cell cycle-phase specific
- D. It inhibits protein synthesis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin is an alkylating agent that works by cross-linking DNA, preventing DNA synthesis and leading to cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cells like cancer cells.
Choice B, inhibiting ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis. Choice C, being cell cycle-phase specific, is incorrect as mitomycin affects cells in all phases of the cell cycle. Choice D, inhibiting protein synthesis, is incorrect because mitomycin's primary mode of action is on DNA replication, not protein synthesis.
A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
- A. Risk for transmission of infection
- B. Pain
- C. Health-seeking behaviours
- D. Ineffective sexuality pattern
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
Mr. Go had a post-kidney transplant. What should the nurse immediately assess?
- A. fluid and electrolyte imbalances
- B. hepatotoxicity
- C. infection
- D. respiratory complications
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because post-kidney transplant patients are at high risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances due to the impact of the surgery on renal function. The nurse should assess for signs of fluid overload or depletion and monitor electrolyte levels closely. Choice B, hepatotoxicity, is less immediate and not directly related to kidney transplant. Choice C, infection, is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D, respiratory complications, are also significant but not the most immediate concern post-kidney transplant.